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Service rendered to foreign company, Goods and Services Tax - GST

Issue Id: - 113056
Dated: 16-11-2017
By:- Varsha Baid
Service rendered to foreign company

  • Contents

I have a query where one Indian company is serving a foreign company as an agent for procuring goods from overseas and selling the goods to India, the outgoing payment and incoming payment is effected to the foreign company and the Indian company is charging services in respect to the buying and selling arrangement.

Is the Indian company liable to charge gst on such services or not since the service is export oriented being served to a foreign entity in foreign currency without any value addition of the goods in India or anywhere.

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Posts / Replies

Showing Replies 1 to 15 of 28 Records

1 Dated: 16-11-2017
By:- KASTURI SETHI

Ultimately enjoyment of service is in India Hence taxable.


2 Dated: 16-11-2017
By:- MARIAPPAN GOVINDARAJAN

It is taxable.


3 Dated: 16-11-2017
By:- Varsha Baid

Thanks for your reply. But still I have a doubt that beneficiary is foreign company and services rendered is outside India. India company is only acting as an agent of Foreign company in UAE to facilitate the supply and delivery of goods and they are not serving any Indian entity. Money related to goods is also received in UAE. There is no cash transaction in India. Agents are getting their commission in foreign currency in dollars. Is still applicable for GST


4 Dated: 16-11-2017
By:- Ramaswamy S

Yes Taxable.

Regards

S.Ramaswamy


5 Dated: 16-11-2017
By:- KASTURI SETHI

Only receipt of foreign exchange for India would not suffice There are so many other factors to determine whether it is export of service or not.


6 Dated: 16-11-2017
By:- Varsha Baid

Place of supply of service is also outside India. Can you please provide the relevant section to refer.


7 Dated: 16-11-2017
By:- Ganeshan Kalyani

It is taxable.


8 Dated: 16-11-2017
By:- Rajagopalan Ranganathan

Sir,

According to Section 2 (6) if IGST Act, 2017 “export of services” means the supply of any service when,––

(i) the supplier of service is located in India;

(ii) the recipient of service is located outside India;

(iii) the place of supply of service is outside India;

(iv) the payment for such service has been received by the supplier of service in convertible foreign exchange; and

(v) the supplier of service and the recipient of service are not merely establishments of a distinct person in accordance with Explanation 1 in section 8.

Explanation 1 of Section 8 of IGST Act, 2017 stipulates that-

For the purposes of this Act, where a person has,––

(i) an establishment in India and any other establishment outside India;

(ii) an establishment in a State or Union territory and any other establishment outside that State or Union territory; or

(iii) an establishment in a State or Union territory and any other establishment being a business vertical registered within that State or Union territory,

then such establishments shall be treated as establishments of distinct persons.

In my opinion conditions (i) to (iv) of Section 2 (6) of IGST Act, 2017 are satisfied and hence what you are doing is export of service and according to Section 16 (1) of IGST Act, 2017 is "zero rated" supply. hence you need not pay any gst.

 


9 Dated: 16-11-2017
By:- KASTURI SETHI

Query and cross query do not match. There is a difference between the language of both. It sometimes happens.


10 Dated: 17-11-2017
By:- KASTURI SETHI

At first the querist said,"Selling the goods to India".


11 Dated: 17-11-2017
By:- Ganeshan Kalyani

Selling goods in India is taxable whereas the service which the querist provide to foreign company being an export of service is exempted.

I guess experts commented on the goods part.


12 Dated: 17-11-2017
By:- KASTURI SETHI

Dear Sh.Kalyani Ji,. Due to improper drafting of query, situation is fluid and hence not cannot be said that it is doubt free.


13 Dated: 17-11-2017
By:- Ganeshan Kalyani

Sri Kasturi Sir, i totally agree with you. The query drafting is very important because experts present their views based on the same. The background of the issue, present difficulty and question should be apparent.Thanks


14 Dated: 17-11-2017
By:- KASTURI SETHI

Dear Sh.Kalyani Ji,. I want to further share with you on this issue. Procurement of purchase order is a Supply of Service. And selling the goods is supply of goods. In this case both are not independent. They are completely intermingled.


15 Dated: 17-11-2017
By:- Varsha Baid

Thank u for your responses.

I am putting the query in a more detailed way :

A Uae company hires an agent in india who is arranging the supplies from Europe and USA and the subsequent selling arrangements to Indian customers. The shipments are coming from Europe/USA ports to Indian ports, there is nowhere agent's involvement in stocking or adding any value to such goods in India or anywhere. The deliveries of goods are taken by the customers upon payment to the uae company. The Indian agent is simply facilitating the sales for uae company as an agent directly from European Port.


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