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2016 (9) TMI 53 - DELHI HIGH COURT

2016 (9) TMI 53 - DELHI HIGH COURT - 2016 (44) S.T.R. 526 (Del.) , [2016] 96 VST 114 (Del) - Coercive action including threat of arrest against officials for recovery of alleged service tax dues - power and jurisdiction of DGCEI - it was submitted that, once the Petitioners admit that they collect the service tax, even on behalf of the hotels whose rooms are booked online, it is incumbent on the Petitioners to themselves deposit the entire service tax collected. - The failure to do so, according .....

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arrest of a person under Sections 90 and 91 of the FA. The power of arrest is to be used with great circumspection and not casually. It is not to be straightway presumed by the DGCEI, without following the procedure under Section 73A (3) and (4) of the FA, that a person has collected service tax and retained such amount without depositing it to the credit of the Central Government. - Where an assessee has been regularly filing service tax returns which have been accepted by the ST Departmen .....

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the first place a determination that a person is "liable to a penalty", which cannot happen till there is in the first place a determination in terms of Section 72 or 73 or 73A of the FA. - For a Central Excise officer or an officer of the DGCEI duly empowered and authorised in that behalf to be satisfied that a person has committed an offence under Section 89 (1) (d) of the FA, it would require an enquiry to be conducted by giving an opportunity to the person sought to be arrested to expla .....

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rore). - The Court is unable to accept that payment by the two Petitioners of alleged service tax arrears was voluntary. Consequently, the amount that was paid by the Petitioners as a result of the search of their premises by the DGCEI, without an adjudication much less an SCN, is required to be returned to them forthwith. - Decided in favor of petitioners. - W.P.(C) 756/2016 - Dated:- 1-9-2016 - S. MURALIDHAR & VIBHU BAKHRU JJ. Petitioner Through: Mr. J.K. Mittal with Mr. Rajveer S .....

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. 2) and the Commissioner Audit-II of the Ghaziabad Commissionerate (Respondent No.3), seeks a declaration that the search conducted by the DGCEI on the business premises of the Petitioner eBIZ on 19th January, 2016 apprehending evasion of payment of service tax, as well as the summons issued to eBIZ on 19th and 21st January 2016 by the DGCEI are illegal and ultra vires the provisions of the Finance Act, 1994 ( FA ). Respondent No. 3 was impleaded pursuant to the order dated 28th January, 2016 p .....

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that in every half-yearly return filed by the Petitioner, exemption available to tour operators under Notification no. 26/2012-ST dated 20th June 2012 has been claimed. eBIZ states that the said returns have been duly verified by the ST Department. 3. It is stated that on 12th January 2007, the ST Department conducted a search in the premises of eBIZ as a result of which eBIZ was compelled to deposit service tax of ₹ 25,55,000/- and interest thereon amounting to ₹ 2,59,000/-. eBIZ fu .....

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for the refund of the amount paid in the sum of ₹ 34,51,500/-. It is stated that till date the said refund application has not been disposed of by the ST Department. 4. eBIZ states that for a second time, on 4th October 2012, a search was conducted by the ST Department in its premises. The statement of Mr. Pawan Malhan, Managing Director (MD), eBIZ was recorded and various documents were seized/resumed. However, no SCN was issued pursuant to the said search. A copy of the panchnama dated .....

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copy of agreements/contracts entered into with Hotels or Travel agents for tour packages and list of associates of Noida and Bulandshahr for FY 2011-2012. 5. eBIZ states that in 2014 the ST Department conducted an audit of the records of eBIZ for the years 2011-2012 and 2013-2014. eBIZ was asked to deposit ₹ 73,387/- together with interest and penalty. It is stated that on 12th December 2014, eBIZ deposited ₹ 75,589/-. When discrepancies were pointed out by the ST Department for oth .....

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turns are enclosed along with the petition. 6. On 13th October 2015, the ST Department proposed, by a letter of that date by the Superintendent (Group-4E), Audit-II of the Meerut Commissionerate, conducting a service tax audit of the accounts/records of eBIZ for the period up to March 2015. The said letter further asked eBIZ to provide copies of balance sheet, trial balance and annual financial report for financial years ( FYs ) 2010-2011 to 2014-2015 along with all the schedules, tax audit repo .....

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tax reports, Form 3CD, TDS details, ST-3; and value and payment of service tax (service wise/month wise) only for the relevant year i.e., 2014-2015. The ST returns filed by eBIZ for all the aforementioned years have been enclosed with the petition. 7. It is pointed out that after conducting the verification audit of eBIZ in 2015, a notice dated 6th January 2016 was issued for examining the admissibility of the exemption claimed under Notification No.26/2012-ST dated 20th June 2012. However, befo .....

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several occasions as referred to hereinbefore. Reference is made to an SCN dated 17th November 2014 demanding service tax of ₹ 34,00,425/- on the ground of reversal of amount of unclaimed commission. This demand was subsequently confirmed by the adjudicating authority on 21st December 2015. eBIZ was filing appeal against the said order. Reference is also made to another SCN dated 2nd November 2015, demanding service tax of ₹ 5,33,341/-, which is yet to be adjudicated. Search and arr .....

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17 crores service tax. When Mr. Malhan refused to do so, he was arrested late in the evening at 7:40 pm on 20th January 2016 under Section 91 of the FA and sent to judicial custody. It was alleged that eBIZ had committed an offence under Section 89 (1) (ii) of the FA. The bail application of Mr. Malhan dated 21st January 2016 was rejected by the learned Metropolitan Magistrate (MM) by an order dated 25th January 2016. While Mr. Malhan was still in custody, two more summons were issued to two of .....

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eBIZ. 11. It is on the above basis that the present writ petition was filed praying inter alia for a declaration that the action of the DGCEI was arbitrary, malicious and motivated and against the provisions of the FA and to declare the summons dated 19th and 21st January 2016 to be without authority of law. Proceedings before the Court 12. In this writ petition, the Court issued notice to the Respondents on 28th January 2016. At that stage, Mr. Malhan was still in custody and his bail applicati .....

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g the MD of the Petitioner, the DGCEI examined the entire previous records of the Petitioner and in particular the assessments in relation to the years 2011-12 onwards. In particular, it is not clear whether the DGCEI was conscious of the pending proceedings and show cause notices issued by the CST under Section 73 (1) of the Finance Act, 1994 and the proceedings consequent thereto. This aspect is significant since the invocation of the powers of arrest without warrant under Section 90 (l) read .....

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rores, followed by an adjudication. 13. The Court accordingly issued an interim direction restraining the DGCEI from taking any further coercive action against eBIZ or its officials. Thereafter, in para 10 it was clarified as under: 10. It is clarified that as far as the proceedings consequent upon the arrest of the MD of the Petitioner pending in the Court of the learned ASJ is concerned, it will proceed in accordance with law and this Court expresses no opinion in that regard. Further, it is m .....

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haziabad, to be impleaded as Respondent No. 3 and further directed that the proceedings consequent upon such notice shall remain stayed till the next date. 15. On the hearing on 2nd May 2016, the records produced by the DGCEI included a note dated 18th January 2016, proposing the arrest of Mr. Malhan. The first line of the said note read thus: An information has been received in this Directorate General that M/s. Ebiz.Com Private Ltd. B-18, Sector-63, Noida, Uttar Pradesh 201301 are not discharg .....

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so. When asked what was the information received, Mr. Aggarwala stated that this had been kept in another file in a sealed cover in the custody of Mr. Vivek Pandey, Joint Director, DGCEI. In the circumstances, the Court passed an order on 2nd May 2016, directing Mr. Pandey to remain present in the Court on the next date along with the file which carried the information on the basis of which the decision was taken to arrest Mr. Malhan. 16. In the meanwhile, since the counter affidavit had been f .....

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ven the mere sight of the papers in the file might give an indication to the counsel for the Petitioner the nature of the documents contained therein and might reveal the identity of the informer who gave the information, the Court on opening the packet found that there was absolutely nothing in the said documents, which were actually photocopies and a booklet, which could convey any such further information on mere sight as suggested by Mr. Aggarwala. 18. The Court nevertheless perused the pape .....

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n the said information which was not already part of the record of the case. In any event, it was not information which was not already available with the ST Department. 19. Three separate counter affidavits have been filed. The counter affidavits filed by Respondent No.1/Union of India and Respondent No.2/DGCEI are word to word identical. A separate counter affidavit has been filed by the ST Department/Respondent No.3, which was impleaded by the order dated 28th January 2016. Interestingly, Mr. .....

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ommissionerate at Noida with the registration number AABCE3009PST001. It further confirms that eBIZ has obtained service tax registration in respect of following services: i. Tour operator service. ii. Online information and database access or retrieval. 21. It is stated that the Central Excise & Service, Audit-II Commissionerate, Ghaziabad came into existence with effect from 15th October 2014. It is pointed out that the Assessees are selected for audit from time to time as per audit norms .....

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in Form ST-2, the statement of CENVAT credit etc. Thereafter, the audit team visited the business premises of eBIZ in the months of November and December and conducted the service tax audit. The list of financial records produced before the audit team has also been set out in the counter affidavit. 22. It is further stated that on examination of the sale invoices issued by eBIZ in respect of its tour operator services, it was seen that it had specifically mentioned the description of services as .....

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ter registration. 23. Respondent No.3 also acknowledged that 90% abatement from the gross value of Tour Operator Service is admissible under Notification No.26/2012-ST subject to the following conditions: i) CENVAT credit on inputs, capital goods and [input services other than the input service of a tour operator} [input services}, used for providing the taxable service, has not been taken under the provisions of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004. ii) The invoice, bill or challan issued indicates th .....

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e documents and further that since the conditions for availing exemption under Notification No.26/2012-ST stood satisfied, the audit had no reason or any basis to challenge the admissibility of exemption availed by eBIZ in respect of Tour Operator Service . The audit team also examined the brochure/catalogue of eBIZ which gave details of the various packages offered by eBIZ. The brochure also provided the details of 48 hotels with domestic destinations and five international destinations for hol .....

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xemption availed by the Petitioner under Notification No.26/2012-ST. 25. Para 11 of the counter affidavit of the ST Department mentions eight audit objections of which five were accepted by eBIZ and these five involved service tax to the tune of ₹ 15.68 lakh. This was deposited by eBIZ on the spot. The remaining objections were not accepted and an SCN dated 2nd November 2015 was issued for recovery of service tax of ₹ 5,33,541/- and the said SCN is stated to be pending adjudication. .....

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of holiday packages and related bills raised by respective hotels for the accommodation arranged by eBIZ for its customers for the FYs 2013-2014 and 2014-2015. 27. In its counter-affidavit, Respondent No. 3 states that the documents required by notice dated 6th January 2016 were only to examine and verify the quantum of abatement availed by eBIZ and not for examining the issue of admissibility of exemption. Another reminder was sent on 22nd January 2016. However, in view of the order dated 28th .....

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t service tax liability is discharged correctly and that there is no escaping of tax liability due to ignorance, bona fide mistake or otherwise, audit of the financial and statutory records maintained by the Assessee is carried out from time to time. It is stated that the audit report issued after the audit certifies the correctness of tax assessment only so far as it is based on the records/documents as produced by the Assessee. Further, the authenticity of such records/documents, produced by t .....

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luding incriminating records, recording of statements of related persons and further follow-up investigation. 29. It is, however, repeatedly stressed by the ST Department that when the audit was conducted there was no reason to suspect the authenticity of the records/documents produced by the party and the exemption under Notification No. 26/2012-ST was found to be admissible to the Petitioner, on the basis of audit of their records produced before the audit . The Audit Department has nothing to .....

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overy of service tax for the same period are warranted, if the issues of classification of services declared by the Assessee are found to be false or different on the basis of facts not disclosed earlier in any of the statutory record by the party. Counter affidavits of Respondent Nos. 1 and 2 30. As earlier mentioned, two separate identically worded counter affidavits have been filed by Respondent Nos. 1 and 2 respectively. The same officer, viz., Mr. Samanjasa Das, Additional Director General .....

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sought to be suggested that although this Court by its order dated 28th January 2016 required eBIZ to cooperate with the DGCEI, the MD of eBIZ had still not provided data of individual associates regarding the amount received from individual associates and date of receipt etc. till date. A reference is made to the statement made by Mr. Sulabh Jain, Accountant of eBIZ on 14th March 2016, to the effect that in 'Tally', the data of individual associates was not maintained and that it was n .....

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letter dated 18th April 2016 by the son of the MD and advocate for eBIZ, Mr. Rajveer Singh, stating that they had brought 123 cartons of documents relating to the associates of eBIZ in a truck. It was then stated that DGCEI did not call for the said documents and only certain details of individual associates had been called for. It was decided to verify the documents on sample basis. It was stated that two of the 123 cartons were opened and nothing relevant was found. This, it is stated, is a g .....

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er dated 8th April 2016 has been placed on record and it is noted that the following details had been requested by the DGCEI: i. Name, address & code number of all the associates who availed Education Package, Holiday Accommodation Package-I & II from October 2011 to till date. ii. List of associates who have not availed Holiday Accommodation Package-I & II from Oct 2011 to till date. iii. List of associates who availed Holiday Accommodation Package- I & II from Oct 2011 to till .....

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sought by the DGCEI in respect of all the associates who availed education packages, holiday accommodation packages -I & II from Oct 2011 till date on 18th April 2016 through its counsel, Mr. Rajveer Singh. However it is stated that the DGCEI officials had refused to take delivery of the said documents and also seized the mobile phone of Mr. Singh. Affidavit of the counsel of the Petitioner 36. An affidavit dated 16th May 2016 has been filed by Mr. Rajveer Singh, counsel for eBIZ. Consequen .....

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y anyone entering the office of the DGCEI. It is stated that one Mr. Ravindra Tyagi, Intelligence Officer was directed to take possession of the documents. However, Mr. Tyagi on reaching the truck was stated to have used abusive language and made the advocate and the client wait till 4:30 p.m. and thereafter stated that they would not be taking possession of the documents since they were irrelevant. It is stated that some wrong statements were recorded in the panchnama and therefore the advocate .....

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response to the rejoinder affidavit filed by eBIZ, a reply has been filed by Dr. Puneeta Bedi alleging non-cooperation by eBIZ. In the said affidavit dated 12th May 2016, Dr. Bedi states that eBIZ was asked only to submit a list of associates (name, address & code number) who availed Education Package and Holiday Accommodation Package-I & II from October, 2011 till date and that instead of submitting the said list, eBIZ sent a truck full of 123 cartons to the office of the DGCEI. 39. Th .....

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e is no requirement for issuance of SCN as contemplated under Section 73 (1) and 73A (3) of the FA. Submissions of counsel for the Petitioner 40. Mr. J.K. Mittal, learned counsel for the Petitioner, made the following submissions: (i) The search conducted by the DGCEI was arbitrary and in complete breach of the provisions of law inasmuch as it was authorised without placing any material on record and without any application of mind and formation of an opinion which are held to be essential ingre .....

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8377; 17 crores to seek release of its MD, Mr. Malhan. (iii) The exercise of powers under Section 82 and 91 by the DGCEI without consultation with the Commissionerate of Service Tax tantamounted to reopening the assessment of FYs for which there was no power in the FA. Further, it is sought to arm the officers of the DGCEI with powers of review and reassessment which are not available to them under the FA. (iv) For authorizing a search under Section 82 of the FA, the competent authority should h .....

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(201) ELT 7 (P&H). (v) The actions of the DGCEI had caused serious invasion of privacy, rights and freedom of the MD of eBIZ and eBIZ itself and harmed their reputation. The actions of the DGCEI and other Respondents were violative of Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India. (vi) This was a proven case of illegal search, seizure and arrest. The facts concerning the two earlier searches were not found mentioned in the note prepared for proceeding with the arrest of Mr. Malhan. If .....

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pite an application dated 27th January 2014, the said amount, which had been deposited under protest by eBIZ, had not been refunded to it. (vii) The arrest memo also did not mention that a second search had taken place on 4th October 2012 of the premises of eBIZ by the Anti-Evasion Wing of the Noida Commissionerate. However, till date no demand has been raised as a result of the said search. (viii) The ST Department has in its counter affidavit admitted to the fact that for the past 10 years it .....

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90% abatement under the said notification. (ix) In every half-yearly service tax return, copies of which have been placed on record, eBIZ disclosed the full receipt of the charges collected for hotel bookings as a tour operator with full computation by claiming exemption under Notification No. 26/2012-ST. The records from 2009 till 2015 during which such returns had been filed have been duly verified by the ST Department and no discrepancy had been pointed out. The SCN issued on 17th November 20 .....

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of completed assessments of earlier years. The DGCEI was wrong to allege that eBIZ had not cooperated with the ST Department or the DGCEI on the numerous queries raised and during the course of repeated audits. Referring to the decision in Mahesh Chandra v. Regional Manager, U.P. Financial Corporation (1993) 2 SCC 279 and Uniworth Textiles Ltd. v CCE, Raipur, 2013 (288) ELT 161 (SC), it was submitted that the mere non-payment of dues would not amount to suppression of material facts. Reliance w .....

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. State of Uttar Pradesh (1990) 4 SCC 113, ICICI Bank Ltd. v. Union of India 2015 (38) STR 907 (Bom) and Technomaint Contractors Ltd. v. Union of India 2014 (36) STR 488 (Guj). Reliance was placed on the decision in N. R. Management Consultants P. Ltd. v. Commissioner of Service Tax, Delhi 2014 (33) STR 371 (Del) to urge that repeated issuance of SCNs when the earlier SCNs were pending adjudication was arbitrary. (xii) It is emphasised that without there being any provision for reopening of asse .....

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The Competent Authority had reasonable grounds of belief, on the basis of a thorough examination of the material on file which included the specific information as provided by an informer, that eBIZ was only providing online coaching service and not tour operating service . It is submitted that the decision to go in for a search operation was not arbitrary. The information received is developed by a senior officer and then discussed with superior officers. It is only after a brainstorming exerc .....

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ed to order search and seizure. (iii) The documents seized during search showed that eBIZ was not rendering any services as a tour operator . It was essentially engaged in the business of providing educational packages camouflaging them as tour operators services . Therefore, eBIZ had committed fraud by claiming exemption under Notification No. 26/2012. Inasmuch as eBIZ had not arranged for a tour which was an essential ingredient of the service provided by a tour operator in terms of Section 65 .....

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een duly followed while carrying out the arrest. (iv) The details disclosed during the course of search reflected that against the total income of ₹ 170 crores from December 2011 till 19th January 2016, the expenses on account of hotel bookings was only 0.09%. The contents of the educational packages were provided free under the garb of holiday accommodation packages while the price of ₹ 10,880 (inclusive of all taxes) was same for both the education packages as well as the holiday a .....

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rtaken by the DGCEI. The audit party in the present case accepted the documents presented before it by an Assessee as genuine without information of any fraud committed by such Assessee. The regular/routine audit cannot be construed as immunity against any other action which can be taken on the basis of some specific information/inputs regarding evasion of tax. (vi) Under Section 73 of FA, the ST Department could make enquiries covering a period of past five years in the event the Assessee had n .....

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to the life of the informer", however, after the case was booked against eBIZ, both the Jurisdictional Service Tax and Audit Commissionerate were contacted to provide various details. (viii) Referring to the note sheets on file, it was submitted that the impugned action of the DGCEI was justified. As regards the past searches undertaken by the officers of Anti-Evasion, Jurisdictional Commissionerate, Noida, it was submitted that the search conducted in 2007 was on the issue of nonpayment o .....

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Jitamalji Porwal 1987 (29) ELT 483 (SC), Union of India v. Shyamsunder 1994 (74) ELT 197 (SC) and Chitra Construction Co. v. Addl. Commr. of CCE & ST Coimbatore (supra) to urge that it was not open to the Court to examine the sufficiency or relevancy of the materials which were available with the Competent Authority for forming a reasonable belief that there was evasion of service tax by eBIZ. Reliance is placed on the decision in Pooran Mal v. Director of Inspection (Investigation) of Inco .....

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han. Since it was a classic case of fraud committed by the Petitioner wherein they had wilfully mis-declared their services of online education as tour operator in their service tax returns with an intent to evade the payment of service tax at the full applicable rate, the action of DGCEI was legal and tenable. Reliance is placed on the decision in Nizam Sugar Factory v. CCE 2006 (197) ELT 465 (SC) to urge that a second or third SCN in the same or similar facts is not impermissible as long as DG .....

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t Company v ITO (supra). Analysis of the relevant provisions 42. The Court proposes to begin the analysis of the above submissions by first referring to the relevant statutory provisions. For the purposes of the present case, a reference is required to be made to the relevant provisions of the FA. Section 65 (105) (n) of the FA defines 'taxable service' as 'any service provided or to be provided to any person by a tour operator in relation to a tour'. Section 65B (44) defines  .....

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sport, and includes any person engaged in the business of operating tours in a tourist vehicle or a contract carriage by whatever name called, covered by a permit, other than a stage carriage permit, granted under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (59 of 1988) or the rules made thereunder; Explanation:- For the purposes of this clause, the expression tour does not include a journey organised or arranged for use by an educational body, other than a commercial training or coaching centre, imparting ski .....

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account all the relevant material which is available on which he has gathered, shall by an order in writing, after giving the person an opportunity of being heard, make the assessment of the value of taxable service to the best of his judgment and determine the sum payable by the Assessee or refundable to the Assessee on the basis of such assessment. 73. Recovery of service tax not levied or paid or short-levied or short-paid or erroneously refunded (1) Where any service tax has not been levied .....

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aid or has been short-levied or short-paid or erroneously refunded by reason of - (a) fraud; or (b) collusion; or (c) wilful mis-statement; or (d) suppression of facts; or (e) contravention of any of the provisions of this Chapter or of the rules made there under with intent to evade payment of service tax, by the person chargeable with the service tax or his agent, the provisions of this sub-section shall have effect, as if, for the words eighteen months , the words five years had been substitu .....

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ls of service tax has not levied or paid or short levied or short paid or erroneously refunded for the subsequent period, on the person chargeable to service tax, then, service of such statement shall be deemed to be service of notice on such person, subject to the condition that the grounds relied upon the subsequent period are same as are mentioned in the earlier notices. (1B). Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1), in a case where the amount of service tax payable has been sel .....

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not being in excess of the amount specified in the notice) and thereupon such person shall pay the amount so determined. (2A) Where any appellate authority or Tribunal or court concludes that the notice issued under the proviso to sub-section (1) is not sustainable for the reason that the charge of - (a) fraud; or (b) collusion; or (c) wilful misstatement; or (d) suppression of facts; or (e) contravention of any of the provisions of this Chapter or the rules made thereunder with intent to evade .....

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able with the service tax, or the person to whom such tax refund has erroneously been made, may pay the amount of such service tax, chargeable or erroneously refunded, on the basis of his own ascertainment thereof, or on the basis of tax ascertained by a Central Excise Officer before service of notice on him under subsection (1) in respect of such service tax, and inform the Central Excise Officer of such payment in writing, who, on receipt of such information shall not serve any notice under su .....

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Explanation 1: For the removal of doubts, it is hereby declared that the interest under Section 75 shall be payable on the amount paid by the person under this sub-section and also on the amount of short payment of service tax or erroneously refunded service tax, if any, as may be determined by the Central Excise Officer, but for this subsection. Explanation 2: For the removal of doubts, it is hereby declared that no penalty under any of the provisions of this Act or the rules made there under s .....

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service tax. (4B) The Central Excise Officer shall determine the amount of service tax due under sub-Section (2) - (a) within six months from the date of notice where it is possible to do so, in respect of cases whose limitation is specified as eighteen months in sub-section (1); (b) within one year from the date of notice, where it is possible to do so, in respect of cases falling under the proviso to subsection (1) or the proviso to sub-section (4A); (5) The provisions of sub-section (3) shal .....

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by an assessee, the date on which such return is so filed; (b) where no periodical return as aforesaid is filed, the last date on which such return is to be filed under the said rules; (c) in any other case, the date on which the service tax is to be paid under this Chapter or the rules made thereunder; (ii) in a case where the service tax is provisionally assessed under this Chapter or the rules made thereunder, the date of adjustment of the service tax after the final assessment thereof; (iii .....

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provisions of the FA read with CE Act. The narration of facts shows that the ST Department undertook scrutiny of the returns in which the exemption was claimed describing eBIZ as a tour operator . Searches and audits were also undertaken. SCNs were issued to eBIZ. In other words, the power of assessment has been and is continued to be exercised by the ST Commissionerate. If in terms of Section 72 of the FA, the Assessing Officer (AO) was of the view that eBIZ was wrongly availing exemption as a .....

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cision dated 1st September 2016 in W.P. (C) No. 521 of 2016), this Court has while analysing Sections 72 and 73 of the FA held as under: "52. It is perhaps a peculiar feature of the FA that there is no power of reopening the assessment like for instance under Sections 147 and 148 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 ( IT Act ). What is provided for is an audit in terms of Section 72A of the FA. Proceedings for recovery of service tax not levied or paid, or short-levied or short-paid or erroneously r .....

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sstatement; or (d) suppression of facts; or (e) contravention of any of the provisions of this Chapter V of the FA or the Rules made thereunder with intent to evade payment of service tax the period of limitation is enlarged from 18 months to five years. Section 73 (2) of the FA envisages adjudication proceedings pursuant to the SCN being issued. It premised on the fact that it is not possible for an adjudication officer to determine beforehand the extent of evasion of service tax. " 46. As .....

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FA is also relevant since it is the case of DGCEI that eBIZ has collected service tax and not deposited it with the Central Government. Section 73A of the FA reads thus: 73A. Service Tax collected from any person to be deposited with Central Government: (1) Any person who is liable to pay service tax under the provisions of this Chapter or the rules made thereunder, and has collected any amount in excess of the service tax assessed or determined and paid on any taxable service under the provisi .....

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d to be paid to the credit of the Central Government under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) and the same has not been so paid, the Central Excise Officer shall serve, on the person liable to pay such amount, a notice requiring him to show cause why the said amount, as specified in the notice, should not be paid by him to the credit of the Central Government. (4) The Central Excise Officer shall, after considering the representation, if any, made by the person on whom the notice is served under .....

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sub-section (1). (6) Where any surplus amount is left after the adjustment under subsection (5), such amount shall either be credited to the Consumer Welfare Fund referred to in section 12C of the Central Excise Act, 1944 or, as the case may be, refunded to the person who has borne the incidence of such amount, in accordance with the provisions of section 11B of the said Act and such person may make an application under that section in such cases within six months from the date of the public no .....

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ing service tax" to forthwith pay the amount so collected to the credit of the Central Government. The crucial words are collected any amount in excess of the service tax assessed or determined. The other expression which has significance is: in any manner as representing service tax. The case of the DGCEI is that service tax is being collected by the Petitioners from the recipient of taxable service in any manner as representing service tax . ............. 58. In the context of Section 73- .....

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st be of the sales tax or purchase tax, secondly, that realisation must be in excess and thirdly the amount of tax should be legally payable under the Act. The High Court has construed the expression as in the beginning of the sub-clause as significant. Penalty is leviable for excess realisation of tax, therefore, realisation of the amount should be as tax and not in any other manner. Then excess should be over and above the amount of tax legally payable. This expression obviously means tax paya .....

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ot impermissible but what is not permissible is realisation of excess amount as tax. .....It has to be borne in mind that the imposition of a penalty under the Act is quasi-criminal and unless strictly proved the assessee is not liable for the same." (emphasis in original) 59. In R.S. Joshi, Sales Tax Officer, Gujarat v. Ajit Mills Limited (1977) 4 SCC 98, the Supreme Court was analysing what the expression "collected' meant in the context of the sales tax legislation of Gujarat. I .....

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e of dispute about taxability or was ready to return if eventually it was not taxable, it is not collected. Collected , in an Australian Customs Tariff Act, was held by Griffth C.J., not to include money deposited under an agreement that if it was not legally payable it will be returned (Words & Phrases p. 274). We therefore, semanticise Collected not to cover amounts gathered tentatively to be given back if found non-exigible from the dealer. (emphasis supplied) 60. In the present case, the .....

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concerned to collect any amount as service tax and fails to pay the amount so collected to the credit of the Central Government . Without coming to the above determination in clear terms, it would not be permissible for the Department to straightway presume that Section 89 (1) (d) read with Section 73A (1) of the FA is attracted.... 49. In the present case, there is no determination by the DGCEI after issuing an SCN that eBIZ has collected service tax which it has failed to deposit with the Cen .....

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any person liable to pay service tax has failed to declare or determine the value of a taxable service correctly, or has availed and utilised credit of duty or tax paid inter alia by means of fraud, collusion, or any wilful misstatement or suppression of facts. In such instances, the Commissioner may direct such person to get his accounts audited by a chartered accountant or cost accountant nominated by him. 51. The power of the Commissioner to order a search has to be read together with Rule 5 .....

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provisions are being referred to in the context of DGCEI seeking to make out a case that scope of the audit carried out on two occasions of the records and accounts of eBIZ by the ST Department was different from the scope of the search carried out by DGCEI. It is sought to be suggested that the audit party accepted at face value the information provided by eBIZ without inquiring further into the matter. The Court finds it difficult to accept this contention since it finds that the scope of the .....

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the purposes of the determination whether there has been evasion of service tax. It is one thing to say, after examining the records of past searches and audits, that there is still reason to believe that there has been evasion of tax for the grounds recorded but it is another to come to such conclusion without even referring to the records of the audit and searches carried out earlier. The latter would be vulnerable to being assailed on ground of lack of application of mind to relevant materia .....

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have easily have been done prior to the search without making any mention of any informer. The fact remains that at the time the search was contemplated by the DGCEI, there was no attempt at finding out what the history of the Assessee was as far as its compliance with the requirements of the FA was concerned. The records of the earlier searches and audits were certainly relevant material as far as the decision to order a fresh search was concerned. Power to search premises 54. In the present c .....

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t to any proceedings under this Chapter, are secreted in any place, he may authorise in writing any Central Excise Officer to search for and seize or may himself search and seize such documents or books or things. (2) The provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, relating to searches, shall, so far as may be, apply to searches under this section as they apply to searches under that Code. 55. In interpreting the above provision, this Court in MakeMy Trip (India) Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of In .....

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apes Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India 2006 (201) E.L.T. 7 (P&H), it was held in the context of the power of search under Section 105 of the Customs Act 1962 which is similar to Section 82 of the FA that: "while existence power of seizure may be justified but its exercise will be liable to be struck down unless 'reasons to believe' were duly recorded before action of search and seizure is taken.".... 56. As was noted in the case of the Petitioners in that case, here too, the note .....

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remises of eBIZ was contrary to law and, therefore, legally unsustainable. Analysis of Section 89 57. For the purposes of justifying the arrest and detention of Mr. Malhan, the DGCEI has sought to bring the case within Section 89 (1) (ii) of the FA. Section 89 of the FA Act prescribes offences and penalties. Section 89 reads as under: 89. Offences and penalties (1) Whoever commits any of the following offences, namely, - (a) knowingly evades the payment of service tax under this Chapter; or (b) .....

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nformation; or (d) collects any amount as service tax but fails to pay the amount so collected to the credit of the Central Government beyond a period of six months from the date on which such payment becomes due. shall be punishable, - (i) in the case of an offence specified in clause (a), (b) or (c) where the amount exceeds fifty lakh rupees, with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years: Provided that in the absence of special and adequate reasons to the contrary to be recorded .....

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mprisonment for a term, which may extend to one year. (2) If any person is convicted of an offence punishable under - (a) clause (i) or clause (iii), then, he shall be punished for the second and for every subsequent offence with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years; (b) clause (ii), then, he shall be punished for the second and for every subsequence offence, with imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years. (3) For the purposes of sub-sections (1) and (2), the fol .....

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d was not the principal offender and was acting merely as a secondary party in the commission of offence; (iv) the age of the accused. (4) A person shall not be prosecuted for any offence under this section except with the previous sanction of the Chief Commissioner of Central Excise. 58. In MakeMy Trip (India) Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India (supra), this Court analysed Section 89 of the FA as under: "64. A plain reading of Section 89 reveals that a distinction is sought to be made in the firs .....

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uate reasons are recorded by the Court which convicts the person. The determination of commission of the offence has to be made by the Court and not by any of the officers of the Department. Where in terms of Section 89 (1) (d), a person collects the due amount of service tax but fails to pay the amount to the credit of the Central Government beyond a period of six months from the date on which such payment becomes due, then in terms of Section 89 (1) (d), that person is punishable in the manner .....

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tes that if a person convicted of an offence punishable under Section 89 (1) (ii) commits a subsequent offence, the imprisonment shall be for a period which may extend to seven years. Section 89 (4) requires previous sanction of the Chief Commissioner of Central Excise for any prosecution under Section 89 of the FA. 65. It is important to note that determination of the commission of an offence for the purposes of Section 89 has to be made by the Court. Prior thereto, there can only be prima faci .....

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ar as Section 73A and Section 89 (1) (d) of the FA is concerned. Section 73A sets out the procedure for determination whether the situation envisaged thereunder exists. That procedure requires notice to be served on the person liable to pay such amount requiring him to show cause why the said amount, as specified in the notice, should not be paid by him to the credit of the Central Government. Therefore, under Section 73A (4), the Central Excise Officer concerned shall, after considering the rep .....

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collecting an amount of service tax but has failed to pay the amount collected. One is that it should not be paid beyond a period of six months from the date on which such payment becomes due. The second aspect is that the sentence as provided under Section 89 (1) (ii) of the FA, where the amount exceeds ₹ 50 lakhs, is imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years. The proviso thereto suggests that for special and adequate reasons, the imprisonment can be lesser than six months i .....

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FA that provide for arrest and read as under: 90. Cognizance of offences (1) An offence under clause (ii) of sub-section (1) of Section 89 shall be cognizable. (2) Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 all offences, except the offences specified in subsection (1), shall be non-cognizable and bailable. 91. Power to arrest (1) If the Commissioner of Central Excise has reason to believe that any person has committed an offence specified in clause (i) or clause ( .....

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he Deputy Commissioner, as the case may be, shall for the purpose of releasing an arrested person on bail or otherwise, have the same powers and be subject to the same provisions as an officer in charge of a police station has, and is subject to, under Section 436 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974). (4) All arrests under this Section shall be carried out in accordance with the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974) relating to arrests. 60. In MakeMy Trip .....

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ount so collected to the credit of the Central Government beyond a period of six months from the date from which it is due and where such amount exceeds ₹ 50 lakhs, which is cognizable under Section 90 (1) of the FA. All other offences i.e., offences other than described as Section 89 (1) (ii) of the FA, shall be non-cognizable and bailable , notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 ( Cr PC ). It is only when the offence is cognizable that, in terms of Cr P .....

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means an offence for which a police officer may, in accordance with the First Schedule or under any other law for the time being in force, arrest without warrant. In other words, on a construction of the definitions of the different expressions used in the Code and also in connected enactments in respect of a non-cognizable offence, a police officer, and, in the instant case an excise officer, will have no authority to make an arrest without obtaining a warrant for the said purpose. The same pr .....

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non-cognizable and bailable offence, the Assistant Commissioner (AC) or the Deputy Commissioner (DC), as the case may be, has the same powers as an officer-in-charge of a police station has under Section 436 of the Cr PC for the purpose of releasing such arrested person on a bail. This contemplates the offences under Section 89 (1) (d) read with Section 89 (1) (ii) of the FA as being cognizable and the commission of offences other than that under Section 89 (1) (d) read with Section 89 (1) (ii) .....

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re Chapter V of the Cr PC on Arrests , comprising Sections from 41 to 60A would apply to any arrest made of a person in exercise of the powers under Section 91 of the FA. The determination by a Court that a person has committed an offence cannot possibly be arrived at till the completion of the process envisaged under the Cr PC. 72. It is difficult to conceive of the DGCEI or for that matter the ST Department being able to by-pass the procedure as set out in Section 73A (3) and (4) of the FA bef .....

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it is not necessary for the adjudication proceedings to have concluded. However, when the scheme of the provisions in the FA is carefully analysed, the said submission appears to be legally untenable. There are statutes concerning both direct and indirect taxes. The Income Tax Act, 1961 is an example of a direct tax statute. The Customs Act, 1962 and the Central Excise Act, 1944 are two of the many indirect tax statutes. These statutes have specific provisions which describe offences and the co .....

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Assessee for the commission of any of the offences under that statute. It is inconceivable that an Assessee is straightway sought to be arrested without there being an assessment and a determination as to evasion of tax. 74. The Customs Act, 1962, has a different approach to the question of offences. Chapter XVI thereof describes with specificity the types of offences and the procedure adopted in prosecuting such offences. Section 138A enables the court to draw a presumption, which is rebuttabl .....

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nt to be noted is that coercive powers under taxing statutes are hedged in by limits on the use of that power by in-built restrictions and limitations. 75. It is for this reason that the powers of a Central Excise Officer under the FA cannot be compared with the powers exercised by the same officer either under the Customs Act or the Central Excise Act. Each of those statutes has a different and distinct scheme which does not bear comparison with the FA. For example, the FA envisages filing of p .....

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artered Bank v. Directorate of Enforcement (2006) 4 SCC 278 and the earlier decisions in G. L. Didwania v. Income Tax Officer 1995 Supp (2) SCC 724 and K. C. Builders v. Assistant CIT (2004) 2 SCC 731 and inter alia held that; (i) Adjudication proceedings and criminal prosecution can be launched simultaneously; (ii) Decision in adjudication proceedings is not necessary before initiating criminal prosecution and (iii) Adjudication proceedings and criminal proceedings are independent in nature to .....

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arrest merely on the suspicion of evasion of service tax or failure to deposit service tax that has been collected. Therefore, for a Central Excise officer or an officer of the DGCEI duly empowered and authorised in that behalf to be satisfied that a person has committed an offence under Section 89 (1) (d) of the FA, it would require an enquiry to be conducted by giving an opportunity to the person sought to be arrested to explain the materials and circumstances gathered against such person, whi .....

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ce under Section 89 (1) (d) of the FA and adjudication proceedings for penalty under Section 83 A of the FA can go on simultaneously, both will have to be preceded by the adjudication for the purposes of determining the evasion of service tax. The Petitioners are, therefore, right that without any such determination, to straightaway conclude that the Petitioners had collected and not deposited service tax in excess of ₹ 50 lakhs and thereby had committed a cognizable offence would be putti .....

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evenue, for recovery of service tax or penalty or interest." The Court there was dealing with a case where the Assessee had made payments under protest of alleged service tax dues under threat by the ST Department of taking drastic action under Section 87 of the FA in the form of sealing of the business premises, attachment of bank accounts and so on. The Court held that "the amount payable by a person can be said to be payable only after there is determination as provided under Sectio .....

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vice tax return for a continuous length of time, who has a history of repeated defaults for which there have been fines, penalties imposed and prosecutions launched etc. That history can be gleaned only from past records of the ST Department. In such instance, it might be possible to justify resorting to the coercive provisions straightaway. But then the notes on file must offer a convincing justification for resorting to that extreme a measure. What, however, requires reiteration is that the po .....

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only that, if the Central Excise Officer is of the opinion that for the purpose of protecting the interest of the Revenue it is necessary provisionally to attach any property belonging to the person on whom the notice is served under Section 73 or Section 73 A of the Act, he is empowered to do so, however with the previous approval of the Commissioner of Central Excise. However, at the same time, law enforcers cannot be permitted to do something that is not permitted within the four corners of .....

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d Manual, it is stated that arrest can be made prior to the issue of an SCN but only "where fraudulent intent is clear (prima facie there is evidence of mens rea) or where the evidence is enough to secure a conviction or where the person is likely to abscond, tamper with evidence or influence the witnesses if left at large. Arrest at the investigation stage should be resorted to only when it is unavoidable." (emphasis supplied) Constitutional safeguards 61. At this stage it also requir .....

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ion of India (supra) held thus: "84.1 The safeguards are traceable to the Constitution of India and in particular Article 22 which pertains to arrest and Article 21 which mandates that no person shall be deprived of his life and liberty without the authority of law. The safeguards pertaining to arrest have been spelt out in the decision of the Supreme Court in D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997) 1 SCC 416. The directions issued by the Supreme Court included setting out in the arrest me .....

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e arrest memo. The date and time of arrest may be mentioned in the arrest memo and copy of memo should be given to the person arrested after obtaining the proper acknowledgment. It must be mentioned herein that in 2008, the Cr PC was amended by inserting Sections 41A , 41B, 41C, 41D, 50A, 55A and 60A and amending Sections 41, 46 and 54 to provide for the above safeguards. 84.2 It is significant in the decision in D.K. Basu (supra), the Supreme Court did not confine itself to the actions of polic .....

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rities also like Directorate of Revenue Intelligence, Directorate of Enforcement, Costal Guard, Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Border Security Force (BSF), the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), the State Armed Police, Intelligence Agencies like the Intelligence Bureau, R.A.W, Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) , CID, Tariff Police, Mounted Police and ITBP which have the power to detain a person and to interrogated him in connection with the investigation of economic offences, of .....

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a prima facie case for investigation and prosecution, this Court directed the CBI to lodge a FIR and initiate criminal proceeding against all persons named in the report of the Additional District Judge and proceed against them. The Union of India/Directorate of Enforcement was also directed to pay sum of ₹ 2 lacs to the widow of the deceased by was of the relevant provisions of law to protect the interest of arrested persons in such cases too is a genuine need. ......... 33. There can be .....

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is the supreme law) and salus republicae est suprema lex (safety of the state is the supreme law) co-exist and are not only important and relevant but lie at the heart of the doctrine that the welfare of an individual must yield to that of the community. The action of the State, however must be "right, just and fair". Using any form of torture for extracting any kind of information would neither be 'right nor just nor fair' and, therefore, would be impermissible, being offensiv .....

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ualitative difference in the methods of interrogation of such a person as compared to an ordinary criminal...." 84.3 These constitutional safeguards emphasised in the context of the powers of police officers under the Cr PC and of officers of central excise, customs and enforcement directorates, are applicable to the exercise of powers under the FA in equal measure. An officer whether of the Central Excise department or another agency like the DGCEI, authorised to exercise powers under the .....

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9 (1) (i) and 89 (1) (ii). In the latter case, it has been mandated that after following the due procedure of arrest, the arrested person must be produced before the Magistrate without unnecessary delay and definitely within 24 hours. Para 2 of the said circular specifies conditions precedent . Para 2.1 states that, since arrest impinges on the personal liberty of an individual this power must be exercised carefully . It has been mandated that an officer of the Central Excise not below the rank .....

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t in para 2.3 which reads thus: 2.3 Apart from fulfilling the legal requirements, the need to ensure proper investigation, prevention of the possibility of tampering with evidence of intimidating or influencing witnesses and large amounts of service tax evaded are relevant factors before deciding to arrest a person. 85. It is, therefore, plain that the decision to arrest a person must not be taken on whimsical grounds. To recapitulate, reasons to believe must be based on credible material . The .....

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e question is not so much about the existence of powers but the proper exercise of those powers by the DGCEI. Court would begin by a caveat that it is not concerned here with the sufficiency or relevance of the materials available with the DGCEI. The Court is called upon to determine whether on the basis of the materials available to it, the DGCEI could have proceeded to form a prima facie opinion regarding the commission of an offence by eBIZ under Section 89 (1) (d) read with 89 (1) (ii) of th .....

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g the sealed cover, the Court did not find anything incriminating that would indicate that an offence had been committed. Interestingly, the name of the informer is not mentioned in the statement given by the informer. The time and date when the information was given is also not indicated. There is also no signature of the informer. There is only a thumb impression, again without indicating whether it is a left or right thumb impression. The declaration given by the informer does not appear to b .....

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e tax that would have been payable if the rebate was not availed of and then concludes that there is an evasion of service tax to that extent. Significantly, the note does not acknowledge that eBIZ is regularly filing service tax returns and paying service tax on that basis. There is no mention of the fact that there had been two earlier searches in the premises of eBIZ by the ST Department. Admittedly, at this stage no attempt was made by the DGCEI to even contact the ST Department. That happen .....

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994. Such offences should be related to collection of Service tax exceeding ₹ 50 Lakh and not depositing the same to the government exchequer beyond a period of six months from the date on which such payment becomes due (the limit was later enhanced to ₹ 1 Crores w.e.f. vide Circular No.101/17/2015-CX dated 23.10.2015. In this regard, it is observed during 2014-15 alone the company has collected ₹ 41,69,09,298/- inclusive of taxes (only Service tax is applicable on the said val .....

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but not deposited the same with the government exchequer. Similarly Service Tax of ₹ 4,44,28,851/- for 2015-16 but not deposited to the government exchequer (much higher than the limit of ₹ 1 crore). In fact, in this way they have collected and not deposited approximately Service Tax to the tune of ₹ 17 Crores for the period 2011-12 to December 2015 for providing service of Online information and database access service and/or retrieval service through computer network of their .....

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No. 1010/17/2015 dated 23rd October 2015. Be that as it may, what is significant is that there is no reference to the Circular No. 171/6/2013-Service Tax dated 17th September 2013 which sets out the Guidelines for arrest and bail in relation to offences punishable under the Finance Act, 1994 . 67. It cannot be presumed that merely because there is a reference to the enlarged monetary limit in terms of the circular dated 23rd October 2015, the Officer proposing the arrest and the officers who ap .....

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al offender or is likely to evade service tax, some enquiry has to be made with the ST Department. There is no other way with the DGCEI to determine if the persons they are dealing with satisfy the profile of the person who should be arrested. 68. In this context, the following passages in the decision of this Court in MakeMy Trip (India) Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India (supra) are relevant: "93. It appears that a decision to launch prosecution and a decision to arrest have to be taken more or .....

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edit facility. A company/assessee would be treated as habitually evading tax/duty or misusing Cenvat Credit facility if it has been involved in three or more cases of confirmed demand (at the first appellate level or above) of Central Excise duty or Service Tax or misuse of Cenvat Credit involving fraud, suppression of facts etc. in the five years from the date of the decision such that the total duty or tax evaded or total credit misused is equal to or more than Rs. One Crore. Offence register .....

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knowledge of the offence, or had fraudulent intention or in any manner possessed mens-rea (guilty mind) for committing the offence. 95. There is a detailed procedure set out in para 6 regarding procedure to sanction a prosecution. Para 6.2, 6.3 and 6.4 of this circular are significant and read as under: 6.2 Prosecution should not be launched in cases of technical nature, or where the additional claim of duty/tax is based totally on a difference of opinion regarding interpretation of law. Before .....

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against persons who were in charge of day-to-day operations of the factory and have taken active part in committing the duty/tax evasion or had connived at it. 6.3 Prosecution should not be filed merely because a demand has been confirmed in the adjudication proceedings particularly in cases of technical nature or where interpretation of law is involved. One of the important considerations for deciding whether prosecution should be launched is the availability of adequate evidence. The standard .....

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ature and gravity of offence, quantum of duty/tax evaded or Cenvat credit wrongly availed and the nature as well as quality of evidence collected. 6.4 Decision on prosecution should be normally taken immediately on completion of the adjudication proceedings. However, Hon ble Supreme Court of India in the case of Radheyshyam Kejriwal [2011 (266) ELT 294 (SC)] has inter alia, observed the following (i) adjudication proceedings and criminal proceedings can be launched simultaneously; (ii) decision .....

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is also apprehended that party may delay completion of adjudication proceedings. 96. What this circular again underscores is that there should be a comprehensive analysis of the evidence gathered before deciding to go in for prosecution. Importantly, prosecution should not be launched merely because a demand has been confirmed or particularly where the cases are of technical nature or where interpretation of law is involved. It is also not to be launched where additional claim of duty/tax is onl .....

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n is "liable to a penalty", which cannot happen till there is in the first place a determination in terms of Section 72 or 73 or 73 A of the FA. Till that point, the entire case proceeds on the basis that there must be an apprehended evasion of tax by the Assessee. This apprehension hinges upon the analysis of the evidence gathered by the investigating agency. It is possible that the officer will take a different view because he has the opportunity of hearing both the sides and to more .....

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as made by the DGCEI even to talk to the ST Department before proceeding to search the premises of eBIZ and soon thereafter arrest Mr. Malhan. 70. The explanation offered in Court by Mr. Satish Aggarwala, on instructions, was that these Departments have to act secretly to the extent that the DGCEI will not even tell the ST Department of their proposed actions. To the Court, it seems unacceptable that with the guidelines issued for launching of prosecution and procedure for arrest, the DGCEI or a .....

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e of the powers vested in them under the Customs Act. It is apparent that the DRI officers in utter disregard to the order passed by the Commissioner of Customs (A), Mumbai have forced the Petitioners to pay the amount by threat and coercion which is not permissible in law. Thus, the conduct of the DRI officers in the present case in collecting the amount from the Petitioners towards the alleged differential duty is wholly arbitrary, illegal and contrary to law. Having terrorised the Petitioners .....

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file in more than one place that Mr. Malhan voluntarily paid ₹ 17 crores as arrears of service tax dues. Mr. Aggarwala repeatedly stressed that such payment was not a pre-condition for the grant of bail and that, in principle, the DGCEI would oppose grant of bail in criminal proceedings only because an offer is made to pay the arrears of service tax dues in such proceedings. The case of eBIZ on the other hand is that such payment was made under extreme duress. The action of the DGCEI has b .....

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of powers is one thing and its exercise, another. 74. In the circumstances outlined earlier, when the MD of a company is in judicial custody, the offer made to pay the alleged arrears of service tax dues of such company even without an SCN can hardly be characterised as 'voluntary'. The loss of liberty, and more disconcertingly, the loss of reputation, is bound to compel even the most rational person to succumb to the extreme pressure that such circumstance subjects him to. In more or le .....

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ven though it may be made before a Court. Secondly, there appears a contradiction because the DGCEI did not decline to receive the offer of payment of alleged service tax arrears. 106. In a different context, while interpreting the provisions of the Delhi Value Added Tax Act, 2004 ( DVAT Act ), this Court in Capri Bathaid Pvt. Ltd. v. Commissioner of Trade & Taxes 2016 (155) DRJ 526 (DB) took exception to the officials of the Department of Trade and Taxes collecting arrears of sales tax from .....

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the search of their premises by the DGCEI, without an adjudication much less an SCN, is required to be returned to them forthwith. It is clarified that since the payment was collected by the DGCEI illegally, the refund in terms of this order will not affect the bail already granted to Mr. Pallai." 75. The Court is satisfied that in the present case the payment of ₹ 17 crores by eBIZ was not 'voluntary' but under coercion and duress and is required to be returned to eBIZ by the .....

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of documents were submitted which according to the DGCEI were not relevant. 77. The above submission appears to be contrary to the letter dated 8th April, 2016 issued to eBIZ by the DGCEI. If indeed only limited information was sought, then the letter dated 8th April 2016 should have been worded differently. What eBIZ was asked to submit was the information in a certain format designed by the DGCEI itself. This format is appended to the letter dated 11th May 2016, issued by Dr. Bedi to eBIZ. Th .....

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cts and circumstances. At the same time, the Court would reiterate the direction that eBIZ and its officers including Mr. Malhan will continue to co-operate with the DGCEI in carrying the investigations to their logical end. Summary of Conclusions 79. To summarise the conclusions in this judgment: (i) The scheme of the provisions of the Finance Act 1994 (FA), does not permit the DGCEI or for that matter the Service Tax Department (ST Department) to by-pass the procedure as set out in Section 73A .....

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rns which have been accepted by the ST Department or which in any event have been examined by it, as in the case of the two Petitioners, without commencement of the process of adjudication of penalty under Section 83 A of the FA, another agency like the DGCEI cannot without an SCN or enquiry straightway go ahead to make an arrest merely on the suspicion of evasion of service tax or failure to deposit service tax that has been collected. Section 83 A of the FA which provides for adjudication of p .....

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n opportunity to the person sought to be arrested to explain the materials and circumstances gathered against such person, which according to the officer points to the commission of an offence. Specific to Section 89 (1) (d) of the FA, it has to be determined with some degree of certainty that a person has collected service tax but has failed to pay the amount so collected to the Central Government beyond the period of six months from the date on which such payment is due, and further that the a .....

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ble to justify resorting to the coercive provisions straightaway, but then the notes on file must offer a convincing justification for resorting to that extreme a measure. (v) The decision to arrest a person must not be taken on whimsical grounds; it must be based on credible material . The constitutional safeguards laid out in D K. Basu's case (supra) in the context of the powers of police officers under the Cr PC and of officers of central excise, customs and enforcement directorates, are .....

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ollowed by detention of Mr. Malhan was impermissible in law. (vii) In terms of CBEC's own procedures, for the launch of prosecution there has to be a determination that a person is a habitual offender. There is no such determination in the present case. The DGCEI cannot possibly come to a conclusion that an Assessee is an habitual offender if there is no discussion by the DGCEI with the ST Department regarding the history of such Assessee. Assuming that for whatever reasons if the DGCEI does .....

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Joint Commissioner or Additional Commissioner or other officers notified by the Board that any documents or books or things which are useful for or relevant for any proceedings under this Chapter are secreted in any place, and (ii) the note preceding the search of a premises has to specify the above requirement of the law. The search in the present case was in violation of Section 82 of the FA. It is unconstitutional and legally unsustainable. (ix) The Court is unable to accept that payment by t .....

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