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AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
SC rules UAE tax resident has fixed place PE in India under Article 5(1) of India-UAE DTAA due to coordinated business presence
SC rules UAE tax resident has fixed place PE in India under Article 5(1) of India-UAE DTAA due to coordinated business presence
The SC affirmed that the appellant, a UAE tax resident, has a fixed place PE in India under Article 5(1) of the India-UAE DTAA. Despite no single employee exceeding the nine-month stay threshold, the aggregate continuous and coordinated business presence through frequent visits and operational control established a PE. The appellant's role extended beyond decision-making to substantive operational control, enforcing compliance and deriving profit-linked fees from the hotel's earnings. The Court held that taxability depends on business presence, not global profitability, aligning with the Larger Bench ruling of the Delhi HC. Consequently, income received under the SOSA agreements is attributable to the PE and taxable in India.
Income deemed to accrue or arise in India - Permanent Establishment (PE) in India - royalty/Fees for Technical Services -service charges received by the appellant under the various SOSA agreement - assessee submitted it did not have any fixed place of business, office, or branch in India, and that the presence of its employees in India during the relevant previous year did not exceed the nine-month threshold under Article 5(2) of the DTAA - assessee being a company incorporated in Dubai and a tax resident of the UAE
HELD THAT:- There is no strait- jacket formula applicable to all cases. Typically, trading operations require a continuously used fixed place, whereas service-oriented business may not. Some jurisdictions consider mere use of a place sufficient, while others require legal or operational control over the premises.
In our view, determining whether a Fixed place PE exists must involve a fact-specific inquiry, including: the enterprise’s right of disposal over the premises, the degree of control and supervision exercised, and the presence of ownership, management, or operational authority.
It is undisputed that the appellant’s executives and employees made frequent and regular visits to India to oversee operations and implement the SOSA. The findings of the assessing officer, based on travel logs and job functions, establish continuous and coordinated engagement, even though no single individual exceeded the 9-month stay threshold. Under Article 5(2)(i) of the DTAA, the relevant consideration is the continuity of business presence in aggregate – not the length of stay of each individual employee. Once it is found that there is continuity in the business operations, the intermittent presence or return of a particular employee becomes immaterial and insignificant in determining the existence of a permanent establishment.
Accordingly, the High Court was correct in concluding that the appellant’s role was not confined to high-level decision making, but extended to substantive operational control and implementation. The appellant’s ability to enforce compliance, oversee operations, and derive profit-linked fees from the hotel’s earnings demonstrates a clear and continuous commercial nexus and control with the hotel’s core functions. This nexus satisfies the conditions necessary for the constitution of a Fixed Place Permanent Establishment under Article 5(1) of the India – UAE DTAA.
At this juncture, we also note the reference made to a Larger Bench of the Delhi High Court in Hyatt International Southwest Asia Ltd [2023 (1) TMI 1416 - DELHI HIGH COURT] where it was held that profit attribution to a PE in India is permissible even if the overall foreign enterprise has incurred losses. Accordingly, the question as answered in the affirmative, reinforcing the principle that taxability is based on business presence and not the global profitability of the enterprise.
We affirm the findings of the High Court that the appellant has a fixed place PE in India within the meaning of Article 5(1) of the DTAA, and that, the income received under the SOSA is attributable to such PE and is therefore taxable in India.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Delayed Justice: Revenue's Supreme Court Petition Dismissed After 825-Day Unexplained Lapse in Filing Proceedings
The Supreme Court, through Hon'ble Justices J. B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan, dismissed the Special Leave Petition filed by the petitioner (Revenue) due to a "gross delay of 825 days" in filing, which was "not been satisfactorily explained." The Court held that the petition is dismissed "on the ground of delay," and all pending applications are also disposed of.
Delayed Justice: Revenue's Supreme Court Petition Dismissed After 825-Day Unexplained Lapse in Filing Proceedings
SC dismissed SLP filed by Revenue due to 825-day delay in filing, which was not satisfactorily explained. The court rejected the petition on procedural grounds, emphasizing the importance of timely legal proceedings. All pending applications were also disposed of, effectively terminating the legal challenge.
Gain on foreign exchange fluctuation - whether was in connection with its business activity? - HC [2022 (10) TMI 1282 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] decided issue in favour of assessee - delay in filling SLP
HELD THAT:- There is a gross delay of 825 days in filing the Special Leave Petition which has not been satisfactorily explained by the petitioner - Revenue.
Special Leave Petition is, accordingly, dismissed on the ground of delay.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Section 80IA(9) restricts allowability of heading C deductions, not their computation when claiming 80IA benefits
The core legal issues considered in this judgment revolve around the interpretation and application of Section 80-IA(9) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (IT Act), particularly its impact on the allowability of deductions claimed under Section 80-IA and Section 80-HHC (and related provisions under Chapter VI-A, heading 'C'). The principal questions are:
- Whether Sub-section (9) of Section 80-IA restricts the computation or only the allowability of deductions under other provisions of Chapter VI-A, heading 'C' when a deduction under Section 80-IA has been claimed and allowed;
- Whether the gross total income for computing deduction under Section 80-HHC should be reduced by the amount of deduction already allowed under Section 80-IA;
- The proper interpretation of the interplay between deductions under Section 80-IA, Section 80-HHC, and other provisions under heading 'C' of Chapter VI-A;
- The validity and correctness of various High Court and Tribunal decisions on this issue, including the decisions of the Bombay High Court, Delhi High Court, Kerala High Court, and the Special Bench of the ITAT;
- The extent to which the legislative intent behind Section 80-IA(9) prevents double or repeated deductions on the same profits and gains.
Issue-wise Detailed Analysis
1. Legal Framework and Relevant Provisions
The judgment extensively analyzed the relevant provisions of the IT Act, especially:
- Section 4: Charging section imposing tax on total income of the previous year;
- Chapter VI-A: Contains Sections 80-A to 80-U, providing for various deductions in computing total income;
- Section 80-A: General provision allowing deductions specified in Sections 80-C to 80-U from gross total income;
- Section 80-AB: Defines computation of deduction under heading 'C';
- Section 80-HHC: Allows deduction in respect of profits retained for export business, specifying percentages of profits allowable as deduction for certain assessment years;
- Section 80-IA: Provides deduction for profits and gains from industrial undertakings or enterprises engaged in infrastructure development;
- Section 80-IB: Provides deduction for profits and gains from certain industrial undertakings other than infrastructure development;
- Sub-section (9) of Section 80-IA: Crucially provides that where any amount of profits and gains of an undertaking or enterprise is claimed and allowed under Section 80-IA, deduction to that extent shall not be allowed under any other provision under heading 'C' and in no case shall the total deduction exceed the profits and gains of such eligible business.
2. Court's Interpretation and Reasoning
The Court emphasized that Section 80-IA(9) restricts the allowability of deductions under other provisions of heading 'C' to the extent of profits and gains already allowed as deduction under Section 80-IA. It does not restrict the computation of deductions under those provisions. In other words, the deductions under Sections 80-IA and 80-HHC (and others under heading 'C') are to be computed independently on the gross total income, but the aggregate deduction allowed cannot exceed the profits and gains of the eligible business.
The Court rejected the Revenue's contention that the gross total income for computing deduction under Section 80-HHC should be reduced by the amount already allowed under Section 80-IA. Such a reduction would distort the formula prescribed under Section 80-HHC(3) and lead to anomalous results, as illustrated in the judgment.
The Court relied heavily on the decision of the Bombay High Court in Associated Capsules (P) Ltd., which held that Section 80-IA(9) applies at the stage of allowance of deduction and not at the stage of computation, and that the aggregate deduction under Section 80-IA and other provisions under heading 'C' cannot exceed 100% of the profits of the business.
Further, the Court approved the reasoning of Dipak Misra, J (as he then was) in the case of Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax, Bangalore v. Micro Labs Limited, which supported the view taken by the Bombay High Court. The judgment clarified that the gross total income remains unchanged for the purpose of computing deductions under Section 80-HHC, even if a deduction under Section 80-IA has been allowed.
3. Key Evidence and Findings
The Court examined the factual matrix where the appellant claimed deductions under Sections 80-IA, 80-IB, and 80-HHC. The Revenue disallowed the deductions under Sections 80-IA and 80-HHC on the basis of Section 80-IA(9). The appellant contended that the deductions under these provisions should be computed independently and then aggregated subject to the overall limit.
The Court found that the appellant's submissions were consistent with the legislative scheme and the interpretation of the Bombay High Court and the Supreme Court bench in Micro Labs Limited. The Court also noted the circular issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT Circular No. 772 dated December 23, 1998) which explained that Section 80-IA(9) was introduced to prevent repeated deductions on the same eligible income and to ensure that aggregate deductions do not exceed profits and gains.
4. Application of Law to Facts
Applying the legal principles, the Court held that:
- The deductions under Sections 80-IA and 80-HHC must be computed separately on the gross total income;
- The gross total income for computing deduction under Section 80-HHC is not to be reduced by the amount of deduction allowed under Section 80-IA;
- The aggregate deduction allowed under heading 'C' of Chapter VI-A cannot exceed the profits and gains of the eligible business;
- Section 80-IA(9) acts as a cap on the total deduction allowed under heading 'C' but does not alter the method of computation under individual provisions;
- The Revenue's approach to reduce gross total income for computing deduction under Section 80-HHC leads to anomalous and impracticable results and is therefore incorrect.
5. Treatment of Competing Arguments
The Court considered and rejected the view taken by the Delhi High Court and Kerala High Court, which had held that Section 80-IA(9) affects computation of deduction under other provisions. The Court found these views inconsistent with the statutory language and legislative intent. The Court also distinguished the decision of the Bombay High Court in Associated Capsules as the correct interpretation.
The Court acknowledged the appellant's argument that the legislature intended to allow deductions under multiple provisions of Chapter VI-A, subject to the overall cap imposed by Section 80-IA(9). It found this interpretation aligned with the statutory scheme and the purpose of the provisions.
Significant Holdings
The Court held:
"Section 80-IA(9) does not affect the computability of deduction under various provisions under heading C of Chapter VI-A, but it affects the allowability of deductions computed under various provisions under heading C of Chapter VI-A, so that the aggregate deduction under section 80-IA and other provisions under heading C of Chapter VI-A do not exceed 100 per cent. of the profits of the business of the assessee."
"Sub-section (9) of Section 80-IA does not bar or prohibit the deduction allowed under Section 80-IA from being included in the gross total income, when deduction under Section 80-HHC of the Act is computed."
"The formula prescribed in sub-section (3) of Section 80-HHC is a complete code for the purpose of the said computation of eligible profits and gains of business from exports of mercantiles and goods. In case the gross total income is reduced or modified taking into account the deduction allowed under Section 80-IA, it would lead to absurd and unintended consequences."
The Court concluded that the correct approach is to compute deductions under Sections 80-IA and 80-HHC independently on the gross total income, and then allow deductions ensuring that the total deduction under heading 'C' does not exceed the profits and gains of the eligible business.
This interpretation preserves the legislative intent to avoid double deductions on the same profits while allowing eligible deductions under multiple provisions.
Section 80IA(9) restricts allowability of heading C deductions, not their computation when claiming 80IA benefits
SC resolved split decision regarding deductions under sections 80HHC and 80IA. Court held that section 80IA(9) restricts allowability of deductions under heading C provisions, not their computation. When deduction is claimed under section 80IA, other heading C deductions are restricted to ensure total deductions don't exceed eligible business profits. The provision prevents double deduction of same income but doesn't affect computation of individual deductions. SC endorsed Bombay HC's interpretation that section 80IA(9) affects allowability rather than computability of deductions under various heading C provisions.
Deductions u/s 80HHC and 80IA - Split Decision by the Division bench of the Apex Court - Appeals/petitions has been referred to a Bench of three Judges in view of the Order in Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax, Bangalore v. Micro Labs Limited [2015 (12) TMI 708 - SUPREME COURT]which records difference of opinion between two Hon’ble Judges of this Court.
HELD THAT:- Section 80-HHC provides for a deduction in respect of profits retained for export business. The provision is applicable to a company or a person engaged in business of export out of India of any goods or mercantile to which the Section applies. In computing the total income, the assessee is entitled to deduction to the extent of percentage of profits set out in Subsection (1B) of Section 80-HHC.
Section 80-IA deals with deductions in respect of profits and gains from industrial undertakings or enterprises engaged in infrastructure development etc.
On plain reading of Sub-section (9) of Section 80-IA, if a deduction of profits and gains under Section 80-IA is claimed and allowed, the deduction to the extent of such profits and gains in any other provision under the heading ‘C’ is not allowed. The deduction to the extent allowed under Section 80-IA cannot be allowed under any other provision under heading ‘C’. Therefore, if deduction to the extent of ‘X’ is claimed and allowed out of gross total income of ‘Y’ under Section 80-IA and the assessee wants to claim deduction under any other provision under the heading ‘C’, though he may be entitled to deduction ‘Y’ under the said provision, he will get deduction under the other provisions to the extent of (Y-X) and in no case total deductions under heading ‘C’ can exceed the profits and gains of such eligible business of undertaking or enterprise.
Sub-section (9) of Section 80-IA, on its plain reading, does not provide that when a deduction is allowed under Section 80-IA, while considering the claim for deduction under any of the provision under heading ‘C’, the deduction allowed under Section 80-IA should be deducted from the gross total income. The restriction under sub-section (9) of Section 80-IA is not on computing the total gross income. It restricts deduction under any other provision under heading ‘C’ to the extent of the deduction claimed under Section 80- IA.
Bombay High Court, in the case of Associated Capsules (P) Ltd. [2011 (1) TMI 787 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] as held that section 80-IA(9) does not affect the computability of deduction under various provisions under heading C of Chapter VI-A, but it affects the allowability of deductions computed under various provisions under heading C of Chapter VI-A, so that the aggregate deduction under section 80-IA and other provisions under heading C of Chapter VI-A do not exceed 100 per cent. of the profits of the business of the assessee.
Section 80-IA(9) has been introduced with a view to prevent the taxpayers from claiming repeated deductions in respect of the same amount of eligible income and that too in excess of the eligible profits. Thus, the object of section 80- IA(9) being not to curtail the deductions computable under various provisions under heading C of Chapter VI-A, it is reasonable to hold that section 80-IA(9) affects allowability of deduction and not computation of deduction.
Hence, we find that the view taken by the Bombay High Court is correct. The interpretation so made to be logical and correct.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Tax Remand Proceedings: Assessing Officer's Discretion Upheld, Witness Examination Rights Preserved Under Statutory Guidelines
The Supreme Court, through Chief Justice Sanjiv Khanna and Justice Sanjay Kumar, allowed the appeal and set aside the impugned judgment/order dated 03.05.2023 as "unsustainable." The Court held that the High Court erred in interfering with the manner in which the Assessing Officer recorded witness statements for a remand report. It emphasized that the discretion to decide the questions to be put to witnesses lies with the appellate authority, i.e., the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) [CIT(A)], or the Assessing Officer during remand proceedings. The assessee retains the right to cross-examine witnesses. The Court noted that cross-examination by the respondent was completed and the remand report submitted. Objections filed by the respondent, Madhu Korah, remain pending before the CIT(A), who "will be at liberty to proceed in accordance with law without being influenced by any observations and directions in the impugned judgment/order dated 03.05.2023." The appeal was allowed and disposed of accordingly.
Tax Remand Proceedings: Assessing Officer's Discretion Upheld, Witness Examination Rights Preserved Under Statutory Guidelines
SC allowed the appeal, setting aside HC's order regarding witness statement recording during tax remand proceedings. The court affirmed the Assessing Officer's discretion in questioning witnesses and emphasized the assessee's cross-examination rights. The CIT(A) was directed to proceed independently without being influenced by previous judicial observations, maintaining procedural fairness in tax assessment.
Denial of cross-examination process of witness - Importance of cross examination of the witnesses whose statements have been utilized by the Assessing Officer in the assessment order - ACIT restricted cross examination process by denying the questions asked by the Petitioner during cross examination - As decided by HC [2023 (6) TMI 94 - JHARKHAND HIGH COURT] as gone through the directions in the remand order wherein he has allowed the appellant, cross examination of the witnesses whose statements have been utilized by the AO in the assessment order. There is no ambiguity in the said directions.
We hereby direct the petitioner to file petition for recall of the witnesses who have been cross-examined and discharged, to put them the question which have been initially discarded by the AO.
HELD THAT:- We are clearly of the opinion that the impugned judgment/order of HC is unsustainable and should not have been passed.
The High Court ought not to have interjected and interfered in the manner in which the statements of witnesses were being recorded by the Assessing Officer to submit a remand report.
It is the discretion of the appellate authority, that is CIT (A) before whom the appellate proceedings or the assessing officer before whom the remand proceedings are pending to decide the questions to be put the witnesses. Of-course the assessee is entitled to put cross questions on the statement made and other relevant aspects.
We are informed and it is recorded in the order [2024 (7) TMI 1637 - SC ORDER] that the cross-examination of witnesses on behalf of the respondent was completed, and the remand report has been submitted by the Assessing Officer to the appellate authority. It is stated that the objections filed by the respondent, Madhu Korah, are pending before the appellate authority.
The objections filed by the respondent, Madhu Korah, will be dealt with by the CIT(A).
We hereby record that the appellate authority, that is, the CIT(A) will be at liberty to proceed in accordance with law without being influenced by any observations and directions in the impugned judgment/order of HC.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
SC upholds reopening of assessment under Sections 11 and 12; HC to decide review petition within four weeks
The Supreme Court, in a petition arising from the Delhi High Court's judgment dated 03.07.2024 (Income Tax Appeal No. 721/2023), addressed the issue of the High Court proceeding ex-parte against the petitioner-assessee despite service of notice. The High Court had observed that "despite service being effected on the assessee, nobody had entered appearance," leading to its ex-parte order setting aside the ITAT's favorable order for the petitioner.The petitioner contended that no proper service was effected. The Supreme Court noted that a review petition challenging the service and the ex-parte order is pending before the High Court. The Court refrained from commenting further, directing the High Court to decide the review petition "in accordance with law" within four weeks, given the urgency due to raised demand.The Supreme Court disposed of the petition, leaving open the petitioner's right to pursue further legal remedies if the review is decided adversely. The Court emphasized procedural propriety and the need for the High Court to reconsider the service issue on its merits.
SC upholds reopening of assessment under Sections 11 and 12; HC to decide review petition within four weeks
The SC declined to interfere with the HC's ex-parte order reopening the assessment and addressing exemption under Sections 11 and 12, noting a review petition pending before the HC regarding service of notice. The SC directed the HC to decide the review petition on merits within four weeks, allowing the petitioner to seek further legal remedies if aggrieved by the HC's decision.
Ex-parte order passed by High court - reopening of assessment - Entitlement to exemption under Sections 11 and 12 - HELD THAT:- We take notice of the fact that after the impugned order came to be passed by the High Court, the petitioner preferred a review petition trying to make good his case that in fact, there was no service effected of the notice issued by the High Court.
We are of the view that as the review petition is pending before the High Court, we should not say anything further in the matter. Let the High Court look into the review petition and take an appropriate decision in accordance with law.
In the event, if the order is adverse to the petitioner, it shall be open for him to avail appropriate legal remedy before the appropriate forum in accordance with law.
Since demand has already been raised and there is some urgency, we request the High Court to take up the review petition and see to it that the same is disposed of on its own merits within a period of four weeks from today.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Income tax demands raised after Resolution Plan approval are invalid and cannot be enforced under Section 31
ISSUES PRESENTED and CONSIDEREDThe core legal questions considered in this judgment include:
- Whether the income tax demands for assessment years 2012-13 and 2013-14, raised by the Income Tax Department after the approval of the Resolution Plan, are valid and enforceable.
- Whether the dismissal of the application by the NCLT and the subsequent appeal dismissal by the NCLAT were justified.
- The applicability of Section 31 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, concerning the binding nature of an approved Resolution Plan on statutory dues.
ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
1. Validity of Income Tax Demands Post-Resolution Plan Approval
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The judgment revolves around Section 31 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, which stipulates the binding nature of an approved Resolution Plan on all stakeholders, including government authorities. The Court referenced the decision in Ghanashyam Mishra and Sons Pvt. Ltd. v. Edelweiss Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd., which clarified that statutory dues not included in the Resolution Plan are extinguished upon its approval.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Court noted that the Income Tax Department did not submit claims for the assessment years 2012-13 and 2013-14 before the Resolution Professional. As per Section 31, claims not part of the approved Resolution Plan are extinguished, and no proceedings can be initiated for such dues. The Court emphasized that the demands raised post-approval were invalid.
Key evidence and findings: The Resolution Plan included a provision for contingent liabilities, but the specific income tax liabilities for the years in question were not listed. The Court highlighted that the Resolution Plan was binding on all stakeholders, including the Income Tax Department.
Application of law to facts: The Court applied the legal principle from Ghanashyam Mishra, concluding that the demands for the assessment years 2012-13 and 2013-14 were extinguished as they were not part of the Resolution Plan.
Treatment of competing arguments: The Court dismissed the argument that the NCLAT's decision was justified because the appellants did not challenge the Resolution Plan. It deemed the NCLAT's reasoning as ignoring binding precedents.
Conclusions: The Court concluded that the demands for the assessment years 2012-13 and 2013-14 were invalid and unenforceable.
2. Justification of NCLT and NCLAT Decisions
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The Court examined the procedural approach of the NCLT and NCLAT in dismissing the application and appeal, respectively, without considering the merits or providing sufficient reasoning.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Court criticized the NCLT for dismissing the application as frivolous without adequate reasoning and for imposing costs. It found the NCLAT's dismissal based on procedural grounds to be perverse, especially when a binding Supreme Court precedent was ignored.
Key evidence and findings: The NCLT's order did not address the substantive legal issues, and the NCLAT failed to consider the Supreme Court's ruling in Ghanashyam Mishra.
Application of law to facts: The Court applied the principle of binding precedent, emphasizing that lower tribunals must adhere to Supreme Court rulings.
Treatment of competing arguments: The Court rejected the NCLAT's rationale that the decision in Ghanashyam Mishra was not applicable because it was not cited before the NCLT.
Conclusions: The Court set aside the orders of the NCLT and NCLAT, finding them unjustified and procedurally flawed.
SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
Preserve verbatim quotes of crucial legal reasoning: The Court reiterated the principle from Ghanashyam Mishra: "Once a resolution plan is duly approved by the adjudicating authority... all such claims, which are not a part of resolution plan, shall stand extinguished."
Core principles established: The judgment reinforced that an approved Resolution Plan under Section 31 of the IB Code is binding on all stakeholders, including government authorities, and extinguishes any claims not included in the plan.
Final determinations on each issue: The Court determined that the income tax demands for the assessment years 2012-13 and 2013-14 were invalid. It set aside the NCLT and NCLAT decisions, allowing the appeal and affirming the binding nature of the approved Resolution Plan.
Income tax demands raised after Resolution Plan approval are invalid and cannot be enforced under Section 31
SC held that income tax demands raised after approval of Resolution Plan are invalid and cannot be enforced. The court ruled that all statutory dues not included in the approved Resolution Plan stand extinguished upon NCLT approval under Section 31 of IB Code. Income tax dues for assessment years 2012-13 and 2013-14 were not part of the approved Resolution Plan, therefore these demands are extinguished. Post-approval demands would prevent the corporate debtor from restarting operations on a clean slate, making such demands unenforceable roadblocks to plan implementation.
Demands for income tax that were raised after the date of approval of the Resolution Plan - binding nature of an approved Resolution Plan on statutory dues - HELD THAT:- In view of the declaration of law made by this Court, all the dues including the statutory dues owed to the Central Government, if not a part of the Resolution Plan, shall stand extinguished and no proceedings could be continued in respect of such dues for the period prior to the date on which the adjudicating authority grants its approval u/s 31 of the IB Code.
In this case, the income tax dues of the CD for the assessment years 2012-13 and 2013-14 were not part of the approved Resolution Plan. Therefore, in view of sub-section (1) of Section 31, as interpreted by this Court in the above decision, the dues of the first respondent owed by the CD for the assessment years 2012-13 and 2013-14 stand extinguished.
In view of the above discussion, the Resolution Plan approved on 21st May 2019 is binding on the first respondent. Therefore, the subsequent demand raised by the first respondent for the assessment years 2012-13 and 2013-14 is invalid.
Once the Resolution Plan is approved by the NCLT, no belated claim can be included therein that was not made earlier. If such demands are taken into consideration, the appellants will not be in a position to recommence the business of the CD on a clean slate.
The additional demands made by the first respondent in respect of the assessment years 2012-13 and 2013-14 will operate as roadblocks in implementing the approved Resolution Plan, and appellants will not be able to restart the operations of the CD on a clean slate.
We, therefore, hold that the demands raised by the first respondent against the CD in respect of assessment years 2012-13 and 2013-14 are invalid and cannot be enforced.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
SC revises honorarium for High-Powered Sale Committee members due to meeting frequency creating compensation disparity
The Court addressed multiple issues in the judgment, primarily focusing on the obligations related to tax deductions and the auctioning process of properties. The key issues considered and analyzed in the judgment are as follows:1. Tax Deduction Obligations: - The Court considered the obligation of the High-Powered Sale Committee (HPSC) to deduct tax at source on interest accruing on deposits in Fixed Deposit and Savings Bank Accounts under Section 194 of the Income Tax Act. - The Court directed that the HPSC is discharged from the obligation to deduct tax at source, shifting this responsibility to the investors-cum-depositors upon receipt of funds. - The modalities of tax payment by investors were to be resolved by the HPSC, allowing for partial payments followed by full payment upon proof of tax deposit.2. Liability for Other Payments: - The Court addressed the liability of the HPSC to deduct tax at source on payments for remuneration, rent, or similar payments. - It was ruled that the HPSC is discharged from this liability, with the onus of paying applicable tax shifting to the recipients upon receipt of payments.3. Auctioning Process Clarifications: - The Court clarified the responsibilities of the HPSC in ensuring fair and transparent auctioning of properties. - Private entity involvement was to be minimized, with the HPSC primarily responsible for the auction process. - The HPSC was directed to continue e-tendering through an e-portal, with details published in local newspapers for wider publicity. - In cases of poor response to e-tendering, the HPSC could resort to conventional auction methods through national and local newspaper notices.Significant Holdings:- The Court held that the HPSC is relieved of tax deduction obligations on interest payments, shifting this responsibility to investors.- It was established that the HPSC's liability for tax deductions on various payments is discharged, with recipients responsible for tax payments.- The Court clarified the auctioning process responsibilities of the HPSC, emphasizing transparency and wider publicity for e-auctions.The judgment also included modifications to the honorarium of HPSC members to expedite the auctioning process and ensure effective functioning. The Court urged the HPSC to implement measures to accelerate the auction process for the benefit of investors awaiting refunds. Additionally, various Interlocutory Applications were disposed of or dismissed based on specific orders and requests made by the parties involved.
SC revises honorarium for High-Powered Sale Committee members due to meeting frequency creating compensation disparity
SC modified honorarium structure for High-Powered Sale Committee members handling tax deduction obligations and property auctioning process. Due to only 13 meetings in 7 months creating anomalous compensation disparity, court revised monthly honorarium: Chairperson increased to Rs.13,00,000, Member (former HC Judge) to Rs.10,00,000, effective February 2025, plus expenses. Member Secretary-cum-Nodal Officer retained at Rs.7,00,000 monthly. Court requested HPSC expedite auctioning process to provide hope for investor refunds.
Tax deductions obligations and the auctioning process of properties - obligation of the High-Powered Sale Committee (HPSC) to deduct tax at source on interest accruing on deposits in Fixed Deposit and Savings Bank Accounts u/s 194
HELD THAT:- As informed by learned counsel for the parties that the HPSC has been able to meet on 13 occasions in almost 7 months. We find that this has led to creation of an anomalous situation. We say so for the reason that we have fixed the honorarium of the Member Secretary-cum-Nodal Officer of the Committee, who is a whole-time officer, at Rs.7,00,000/- per month (instead of Rs.75,000/- per sitting day). However, the Chairperson and other member of the Committee continue to draw honorarium of Rs.2,00,000/- and Rs.1,50,000/- per sitting date. Since there have not been many sittings, it is well understood that their honorarium is far less than that of the Member Secretary.
Taking into consideration all the attending circumstances, we deem it appropriate to modify paragraph 12(i) and 12 (ii) of our judgment [2024 (7) TMI 935 - SUPREME COURT] and consequently to direct that the Chairperson of the HPSC shall be entitled to a lump-sum honorarium of Rs.13,00,000/- per month w.e.f. February, 2025, besides the travelling, boarding and other miscellaneous expenses as may be incurred in discharging the assigned responsibilities. Similarly, learned Member, who is a former Judge of the High Court, shall be entitled to a lump-sum honorarium of Rs.10,00,000/- per month, in addition to travelling, boarding and other miscellaneous expenses as may be incurred in discharging the assigned responsibilities.
We request the HPSC to evolve some more measures to expedite the process so that the actual auctioning can commence giving a ray of hope to the investors for the refund of their amount.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Section 271AAA penalty applies only to undisclosed income not admitted during search proceedings despite tax payment
Section 271AAA penalty applies only to undisclosed income not admitted during search proceedings despite tax payment
The SC held that penalty under Section 271AAA is discretionary but not unfettered, requiring undisclosed income found during search. The appellant admitted Rs.2,27,65,580 during search, substantiated its derivation, and paid tax with interest, satisfying conditions under Section 271AAA(2), thus exempting this amount from penalty. However, Rs.2,49,90,000 from land transactions discovered through sale deeds collected as result of search constituted undisclosed income. Since this amount was not admitted during search but only disclosed later in assessment proceedings, the Section 271AAA(2) exception did not apply, making 10% penalty leviable on this portion.
Penalty u/s 271AAA - Appellant did not make payment of tax - As argued Revenue Authorities without satisfying themselves as to the satisfaction of ‘undisclosed income’ as stipulated in Section 271AAA(1) levied the penalty
HELD THAT:- Section 271AAA(1) stipulates that the Assessing Officer may, notwithstanding anything contained in any other provisions of the Act 1961, direct the Assessee, in a case where search has been carried out to pay by way of a penalty, in addition to the tax, a sum computed at the rate of 10% (Ten per cent) of the undisclosed income of the specified previous year. However, the imposition of penalty is not mandatory. Consequently, penalty under this Section may be levied if there is undisclosed income in the specified previous year.
This Court is of the view that though under Section 271AAA(1) of the Act 1961, the Assessing Officer has the discretion to levy penalty, yet this discretionary power is not unfettered, unbridled and uncanalised. Discretion means sound discretion guided by law. It must be governed by rule, not by humour, it must not be arbitrary, vague and fanciful. [See: Som Raj and Others vs. State of Haryana and Others, [1990 (2) TMI 306 - SUPREME COURT].
Section 271AAA(2) stipulates that Section 271AAA(1) shall not be applicable if the assessee–(i) in a statement under sub-section (4) of Section 132 in the course of the search, admits the undisclosed income and specifies the manner in which such income has been derived; (ii) substantiates the manner in which the undisclosed income was derived; and (iii) pays the tax, together with interest, if any, in respect of the undisclosed income. (See: Chaturvedi & Pithisaria’s Income Tax Law Seventh Edition).
Consequently, if the aforesaid conditions (i) and (ii) are satisfied and the tax together with interest on the undisclosed income is paid upto the date of payment, even with delay, in the absence of specific period of compliance, then penalty at the rate of 10% (Ten per cent) under Section 271AAA is normally not leviable.
The expression ‘Undisclosed Income’ has been defined in Explanation (a) appended to Section 271AAA.The onus is on the Assessing Officer to satisfy the condition precedent stipulated in the said Explanation, before the charge for levy of penalty is fastened on the assessee.
Consequently, it is obligatory on the part of the Assessing Officer to demonstrate and prove that undisclosed income of the specified previous year was found during the course of search or as a result of the search.
Expression ‘specified previous year’ has been defined in Explanation (b) appended to Section 271AAA of the Act 1961. Since in the present case, the search was conducted on 25th November, 2010 and as the year for filing returns under Section 139(1) of the Act 1961 which ended prior to that date had expired on 31st July, 2010, Explanation b(i) is not applicable so as to make AY 2010-11 the specified previous year. Consequently, by virtue of Explanation b(ii), AY 2011-12 (the year in which the search was conducted) is the specified previous year in the present case for the purpose of Section 271AAA(1) of the Act 1961.
Penalty levied - In the present case, the Appellant admitted Rs.2,27,65,580/- as income for AY 2011-12 during the search before DDIT (Inv.) as well as substantiated the manner in which the said undisclosed income was derived and paid tax together with interest thereon, albeit belatedly.
Consequently, all the conditions precedent mentioned in Section 271AAA(2) stand satisfied and, therefore, penalty under Section 271AAA(1) is not attracted on the said amount.
Penalty @ 10% levied - It is an admitted position that the Appellant had not offered in the declaration before the DDIT(Inv.) any income on land transactions belonging to Mr. Sharab Reddy and Mr. NHR Prasad Reddy.
The argument that the said transactions had not been found in the search at the Appellant’s premises but had been found due to ‘copies of sale deeds collected from the society’ cuts no ice with this Court as the sale deeds had been collected as a result of the search and in continuation of the search. This Court is of the view that as the causation for collecting the sale deeds from the Society was the search at the Appellant’s premises, it cannot be said that the said documents were not found in the course of the search.
Further, this Court is of the opinion that the expression ‘found in the course of search’ is of a wide amplitude. It does not mean documents found in the assessee’s premises alone during the search. At times, search of an assessee leads to a search of another individual and/or further investigation/interrogation of third parties. All these steps and recoveries therein would fall within the expression ‘found in the course of search’.
Since income of Rs.2,49,90,000/- constitutes undisclosed income found during the search, penalty under Section 271AAA(1) of the Act 1961 is leviable on the said amount.
Also, as the said amount was not admitted in the declaration before the DDIT(Inv.) during the course of search but was disclosed by the Appellant only during the assessment proceedings, and that too, after the Assessing Officer had asked for copies of the sale deeds from the Society, this Court is of the view that the exception carved out in Section 271AAA(2) is not attracted to the said portion of the income.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Section 276CC offence occurs day after due date for filing returns, not actual filing date
1. ISSUES PRESENTED and CONSIDERED
a. Whether an offence under Section 276CC of the Income Tax Act, 1961 could be said to have been committed on the actual date of filing of return of income or on the day immediately after the due date for filing of returns as per Section 139(1) of the ActRs.
b. What is the meaning of the expression "first offence" appearing in Clause 8 of the 2014 guidelinesRs.
c. What amounts to voluntary disclosure for the purpose of Clause 8 of the 2014 guidelinesRs.
d. Whether the 2014 guidelines are mandatory or directory in natureRs.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
i. Section 276CC of the Income Tax Act, 1961
The Court examined the scope of Section 276CC, which penalizes the failure to furnish income tax returns in due time. The Court referred to the precedent set in Prakash Nath Khanna v. CIT, which clarified that the offence is committed immediately after the due date for filing returns as per Section 139(1), not the actual date of filing a belated return. Therefore, the offence for AY 2013-14 was committed on 01.11.2013, the day after the due date.
ii. Provisions pertaining to compounding of offences
Section 279(2) of the Act allows the Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner to compound offences either before or after proceedings are initiated. The Court noted that this power is discretionary and not a matter of right for the assessee, as previously held in Union of India v. Banwari Lal Agarwal. The Court also emphasized that the exercise of this discretion must adhere to instructions issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), as clarified in Y.P. Chawla v. M.P. Tiwari.
iii. Guidelines for Compounding of Offences under Direct Tax Laws, 2014
The 2014 guidelines categorize offences under two categories: A and B, with Section 276CC falling under Category B. The guidelines specify that Category B offences are generally not compounded except when it is the first offence. The definition of "first offence" includes offences committed before a show cause notice is issued or voluntarily disclosed before detection by the Department.
The Court found that both offences for AY 2011-12 and AY 2013-14 were committed before the issuance of any show cause notice, thus qualifying as "first offences." The Court rejected the respondents' argument that filing a belated return constitutes voluntary disclosure, clarifying that voluntary disclosure should occur before the Department detects the offence.
The Court also discussed the discretionary nature of the guidelines, emphasizing that while eligibility conditions must be met, the competent authority should consider the specific facts and circumstances of each case. The Court referred to the Delhi High Court's decision in Sports Infratech P. Ltd. & Anr. v. Deputy Commissioner of Income-tax, which highlighted the need for authorities to consider objective facts rather than rigidly applying guidelines.
3. SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
The Court held that the offence under Section 276CC for AY 2013-14 was committed on 01.11.2013, immediately after the due date, and before any show cause notice was issued, thus qualifying as a "first offence" under the 2014 guidelines. The Court emphasized that the guidelines are directory, not mandatory, and authorities must consider the facts and circumstances of each case when deciding on compounding applications.
The Court set aside the High Court's judgment and the order of the Chief Commissioner of Income Tax, Vadodara, rejecting the appellant's compounding application. The Court directed the appellant to file a fresh compounding application, which the competent authority must adjudicate considering the appellant's conduct and the nature of the offence.
Section 276CC offence occurs day after due date for filing returns, not actual filing date
The SC held that an offence under Section 276CC is committed on the day immediately following the due date for filing income tax returns, not on the actual filing date. The appellant committed offences for AY 2011-12 (due date 30.09.2011, filed 04.03.2013) and AY 2013-14 (due date 31.10.2013, filed 29.11.2014). Both offences occurred before any prosecution notice was issued on 27.10.2014. The AY 2013-14 offence qualified as a "first offence" under 2014 CBDT guidelines, making it eligible for compounding. The SC set aside the HC and Commissioner's rejection orders, directing fresh consideration of the compounding application.
Compounding of the offence u/s 276CC - belated filing of the return of income for AY 2013-14 within the due date as contemplated u/s 139(1) - Meaning of the expression “first offence” appearing in Clause 8 of the 2014 guidelines - voluntary disclosure for the purpose of Clause 8 of the 2014 guidelines
Whether an offence u/s 276CC could be said to have been committed on the actual date of filing of return of income or on the day immediately after the due date for filing of returns as per Section 139(1) of the Act? - HELD THAT:- Appellant is right in his contention that the point in time when the offence u/s 276CC could be said to be committed is the day immediately following the due date prescribed for filing of return of income u/s 139(1) of the Act, and the actual date of filing of the return of income at a belated stage would not affect in any manner the determination of the date on which the offence u/s 276CC of the Act was committed.
The due-date for filing the return of income for the AY 2011-12 was 30.09.2011. The appellant filed his return with delay on 04.03.2013. Hence, as the return was filed beyond the due date for filing the return, an offence under Section 276CC could be said to have been committed by the appellant prima facie.
Similarly, the due date for filing the return of income for the AY 2013- 14 was 31.10.2013, whereas the appellant filed the return for the said year on 29.11.2014. Hence, the appellant once again breached the requirement of Section 276CC and thus committed an offence as defined under the said provision.
Even otherwise, it has not been disputed by the appellant that an offence under Section 276CC was committed by him for AYs 2011-12 and 2013-14 respectively, and he had preferred compounding applications for both the assessment years. While his compounding application for the AY 2011-12 came to be allowed, his compounding application for the AY 2013-14 was rejected by Respondent no. 1 and the rejection was upheld by the High Court vide the impugned order.
In view of the dictum laid in Prakash Nath Khanna [2004 (2) TMI 3 - SUPREME COURT] the date for commission of both of these offences would be the day falling immediately next to the due date for filing of return, that is 01.10.2011 for AY 2011-12 and 01.11.2013 for the AY 2013-14.
Whether the offence u/s 276CC for the AY 2013-14 could be said to have been committed before the show cause notice for initiation of prosecution for the AY 2011-12 was issued by the Department? - As the show cause notice for the AY 2011-12 was issued to the appellant on 27.10.2014. However, the offence under Section 276CC of the Act could be said to have been committed on the dates immediately following the due date for furnishing the return of income for both these assessment years respectively. Thus, the offence for the AY 2011-12 could be said to have been committed on 01.10.2011 and the offence for the AY 2013-14 could be said to have been committed on 01.11.2013.
Therefore, it can be said without a cavil of doubt that both the offences under Section 276CC of the Act were committed prior to the date of issue of any show cause notice for prosecution.
We find it difficult to agree with the contention advanced by the respondents that even if the appellant is not covered by the first part of the definition of the expression “first offence”, he will still be covered by the latter half which is reproduced in the preceding paragraph.
A plain reading of the 2014 guidelines reveals that while it is mandatory that the eligibility conditions prescribed under Paragraph 7 are to be satisfied, the restrictions laid down in Paragraph 8 have to be read along with Paragraph 4 of the Act which provides that the exercise of discretion by the competent authority is to be guided by the facts and circumstances of each case, the conduct of the appellant and nature and magnitude of offence. Seen thus, it becomes clear that the restrictions laid down in Paragraph 8 of the guidelines are although required to be generally followed, the guidelines do not exclude the possibility that in a peculiar case where the facts and circumstances so require, the competent authority cannot make an exception and allow the compounding application.
We have also had the benefit of looking at the Guidelines for Compounding of Offences under Direct Tax Laws, 2019 and the Guidelines for Compounding of Offences under Direct Tax Laws, 2022 issued by the CBDT. In both the said Guidelines, the offence under Section 276CC has been made a Category A offence instead of a Category B offence and is compoundable up to three occasions. Although this would not have any direct implication on the case at hand since the same is governed by the 2014 guidelines, yet what this indicates is that there is a clear shift in the policy of the Department when it comes to the compounding of offences under Section 276CC in particular and in making the compounding regime more flexible and liberal in particular.
Order:- We have reached the conclusion that the High Court fell in error in rejecting the writ petition filed by the appellant against the order passed by the Chief Commissioner of Income Tax, Vadodara rejecting the application for compounding. The offence as alleged to have been committed by the appellant under Section 276CC of the Act for the AY 2013-14 is, without a doubt, covered by the expression “first offence” as defined under the 2014 guidelines and thus the compounding application preferred by the appellant could not have been rejected by Respondent no. 1 on this ground alone.
The impugned order passed by the High Court as well as the order passed by the Chief Commissioner of Income Tax, Vadodara rejecting the compounding application of the appellant are hereby set aside.
Appellant shall prefer a fresh application for compounding before the competent authority within two weeks from the date of this judgment.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
India's SC Dismisses Special Leave Petition, Finds No Grounds to Interfere; Respondent Absent, Delay Condoned.
The Supreme Court of India, with Hon'ble The Chief Justice and Hon'ble Mr. Justice Sanjay Kumar presiding, dismissed the special leave petition as they found no sufficient grounds to interfere with the impugned judgment. The delay was condoned, and any pending applications were disposed of accordingly. The Respondent did not appear.
India's SC Dismisses Special Leave Petition, Finds No Grounds to Interfere; Respondent Absent, Delay Condoned.
The SC of India dismissed the special leave petition, finding no sufficient grounds to interfere with the impugned judgment. The delay was condoned, and any pending applications were disposed of. The Respondent did not appear.
Expenses incurred are excessive u/s 40A(2)(b) - Applicability of provisions of section 44BBB - HC [2024 (2) TMI 1531 - DELHI HIGH COURT] held that material particulars had been duly placed before the DRP and the AO failed to justify the invocation of the said provision. ITAT has further found that the Department had failed to produce any material or establish from the record that the expenses claimed were inflated or unjustified. Also assessee was not executing a turnkey power project to attract applicability of provisions of section 44BBB
HELD THAT:- We do not find any good ground and reason to interfere with the impugned judgment and, hence, the present special leave petition is dismissed.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Share capital reduction by subsidiary constitutes transfer under Section 2(47), capital loss on extinguished shares allowed
1. ISSUES PRESENTED and CONSIDERED
The core legal issue presented in this judgment is:
- Whether the reduction in share capital of a company, leading to a proportional reduction in the number of shares held by an assessee, constitutes a "transfer" of a capital asset under Section 2(47) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, thereby allowing the assessee to claim a capital loss.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
Relevant Legal Framework and Precedents
The legal framework revolves around the interpretation of "transfer" under Section 2(47) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, which includes the sale, exchange, or relinquishment of an asset, or the extinguishment of any rights therein. Section 45 of the Act deals with capital gains arising from the transfer of a capital asset. The case of Kartikeya V. Sarabhai v. Commissioner of Income Tax is pivotal, wherein the Supreme Court elaborated on the concept of transfer and capital gains.
Court's Interpretation and Reasoning
The Supreme Court reaffirmed that the reduction of share capital leading to the extinguishment of rights in shares constitutes a "transfer" under Section 2(47). The Court reasoned that even if the face value of shares remains unchanged, the reduction in the number of shares and the consequent extinguishment of rights amount to a transfer. The Court relied heavily on its previous decision in Kartikeya V. Sarabhai, which established that extinguishment of rights in a capital asset is sufficient to constitute a transfer.
Key Evidence and Findings
The key evidence was the reduction in the number of shares from 15,33,40,900 to 9,988, while the face value remained Rs. 10. The assessee received a consideration of Rs. 3,17,83,474. The Court found that this reduction and the receipt of consideration amounted to an extinguishment of rights, thus constituting a transfer.
Application of Law to Facts
The Court applied the legal principles from Kartikeya V. Sarabhai to the facts, concluding that the reduction in share capital and the extinguishment of rights in the shares held by the assessee amounted to a transfer. This allowed the assessee to claim a capital loss under Section 45 of the Income Tax Act.
Treatment of Competing Arguments
The Revenue argued that since the face value and the percentage of shareholding remained unchanged, there was no transfer. The Court dismissed this argument, emphasizing that the extinguishment of rights, not the percentage of shareholding, is the critical factor in determining a transfer under Section 2(47).
Conclusions
The Court concluded that the reduction in share capital and the consequent extinguishment of rights in shares held by the assessee constituted a transfer under Section 2(47) of the Income Tax Act, allowing the claim of a capital loss.
3. SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
Preserve Verbatim Quotes of Crucial Legal Reasoning
"Relinquishment of the asset or the extinguishment of any right in it, which may not amount to sale, can also be considered as a transfer and any profit or gain which arises from the transfer of a capital asset is liable to be taxed under Section 45 of the Act."
Core Principles Established
- The reduction in share capital leading to the extinguishment of rights in shares constitutes a transfer under Section 2(47) of the Income Tax Act.
- Extinguishment of rights, rather than the percentage of shareholding, is the determining factor for a transfer.
- Consideration received in lieu of extinguished rights supports the claim of capital loss.
Final Determinations on Each Issue
The Supreme Court dismissed the Revenue's appeal, affirming the High Court's decision that the reduction in share capital constituted a transfer, thus allowing the assessee's claim for capital loss.
Share capital reduction by subsidiary constitutes transfer under Section 2(47), capital loss on extinguished shares allowed
The SC held that reduction of share capital by a subsidiary company resulting in proportionate reduction of the holding company's shareholding constitutes a transfer under Section 2(47) of the Income Tax Act, 1961. Following the precedent in Anarkali Sarabhai, the Court ruled that reduction of share capital involves the company purchasing its own shares, which falls within the meaning of "sale, exchange or relinquishment" under Section 2(47). The assessee's claim for capital loss on extinguishment of rights in shares was allowed, with the Court deciding in favor of the assessee.
Reduction of share capital - Disallowance of capital loss claimed by holding that there is extinguishment of rights of 153340900 shares - Interpretation of "transfer" u/s 2(47) - Scope and ambit of the expression “sale, exchange or relinquishment of the asset” used in Section 2(47) - as argued no such extinguishment of rights is made out by the assessee as required u/s 2(47) and there is no reduction in the face value of share - whether reduction in shares of the subsidiary company did not result in the transfer of a capital asset as envisaged in Section 2(47)? - HELD THAT:- This Court in the case of Anarkali Sarabhai [1997 (1) TMI 5 - SUPREME COURT] observed that the reduction of share capital or redemption of shares is an exception to the rule contained in Section 77(1) of the Companies Act, 1956 that no company limited by shares shall have the power to buy its own shares. In other words, the Court held that both reduction of share capital and redemption of shares involve the purchase of its own shares by the company and hence will be included within the meaning of transfer under Section 2(47) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
Thus, we are of the view that the reduction in share capital of the subsidiary company and subsequent proportionate reduction in the shareholding of the assessee would be squarely covered within the ambit of the expression “sale, exchange or relinquishment of the asset” used in Section 2(47) the Income Tax Act, 1961. Decided in favour of assessee.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Supreme Court Overturns Order, Directs Fresh Assessment with Fair Consideration of Objections.
Issues:
1. Refusal by the High Court to entertain a writ petition under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
2. Relegation of the appellant to alternative remedy under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
3. Consideration of recent judgment by the Supreme Court in a similar matter.
4. Request to set aside the final Assessment Order and reconsideration by the Assessing Officer.
5. Disagreement on quashing the notices and giving an opportunity to the appellant.
6. Decision of the Supreme Court to quash the final Assessment Order for enabling the appellant to raise objections.
7. Direction for the Assessing Officer to consider objections and pass a fresh order.
8. Setting aside of the High Court order dated 11.07.2023 and allowing the appeal.
9. Liberty granted to the appellant to seek remedies if aggrieved by the fresh Assessment Order.
Analysis:
The Supreme Court addressed the issue of the High Court's refusal to entertain a writ petition under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, relegating the appellant to the alternative remedy under the Income Tax Act, 1961. The Court considered a recent judgment where a three-Judge Bench of the Supreme Court had relegated matters to the Assessing Officer for considering the delay in issuance of notices under the Income Tax Act. The Court noted that the appellant sought to set aside the final Assessment Order and requested reconsideration by the Assessing Officer, while the Additional Solicitor General disagreed with quashing the notices at that stage. However, applying the precedent set in the mentioned judgment, the Court decided to quash the final Assessment Order to allow the appellant to raise objections before the Assessing Officer.
The Supreme Court clarified that the Assessing Officer must consider the objections and contentions of the appellant regarding the impugned notices and pass a fresh order in accordance with the law. Consequently, the Court set aside the High Court's order dated 11.07.2023, allowed the appeal, and did not impose any costs. The Court further granted the appellant the liberty to seek remedies if aggrieved by the fresh Assessment Order to be passed by the Assessing Officer. This comprehensive analysis demonstrates how the Supreme Court addressed each issue raised by the parties, considered relevant precedents, and provided a clear direction for the Assessing Officer to handle the matter in accordance with the law.
Supreme Court Overturns Order, Directs Fresh Assessment with Fair Consideration of Objections.
The Supreme Court quashed the final Assessment Order and set aside the High Court's decision, allowing the appeal. The Court directed the Assessing Officer to consider the appellant's objections and pass a fresh order in accordance with the law. The appellant was granted the liberty to seek further remedies if aggrieved by the new Assessment Order. The decision emphasized the need for the Assessing Officer to address the appellant's contentions and highlighted the Court's reliance on precedent to ensure fair adjudication. No costs were imposed.
Validity of reopening of assessment - delay in issuance of notices - High Court [2023 (7) TMI 1504 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] refused to entertain the writ petition filed by the appellant herein under Article 226 of the Constitution of India relegating the appellant to the alternative remedy under the provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1961 - HELD THAT:- As in Union of India & Ors. Vs. Rajeev Bansal [2024 (10) TMI 264 - SUPREME COURT (LB)] wherein a three Judge Bench of this Court headed by the then Hon’ble the Chief Justice of India, relegated the matters to the Assessing Officer for the purpose of considering the question of delay in issuance of notices impugned in those cases u/s 148 and/or other provisions of the I.T. Act, 1961, which were deemed to have been issued under the amended Section 148-A(b) in terms of the order of this Court in the case of Union of India Vs. Ashish Agarwal [2022 (5) TMI 240 - SUPREME COURT]
Thus while applying the dictum of this Court in the case of Rajeev Bansal, referred to above, we think it just and proper to quash the final Assessment Order dated 22.05.2023 only for the purpose of enabling the appellant herein to take up all objections and contentions vis-a-vis the impugned notices.
It is needless to observe that the concerned AO shall consider the objections and contentions of the appellant herein vis-a-vis the impugned notices and pass a fresh order in accordance with law.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Bank cleared of fraud charges as inadvertent error in ignoring restraint orders lacks criminal intent
Issues Involved:
1. Whether the FIR against the appellant-bank and its officials disclosed any mens rea or commission of any offence under the IPC.
2. Whether the High Court erred in dismissing the writ petition for quashing the FIR.
3. Applicability of Sections 34, 37, 120B, 201, 206, 217, 406, 409, 420, and 462 of the IPC to the appellant-bank and its officials.
4. Examination of the High Court's role under Section 482 of the Cr.P.C. in quashing the FIR.
5. Relevance of the judgments cited by both parties in the context of the current case.
6. Whether the continuation of criminal proceedings against the appellant-bank would cause undue hardship.
Detailed Analysis:
1. Mens Rea and Commission of Offence:
The appellant-bank contended that the FIR, even when taken at face value, did not disclose any mens rea or commission of any offence by the bank officials. The FIR lacked specific allegations of collusion between the bank staff and the customer, Ms. Sunita Khemka. The bank officials had misinterpreted the revocation order, assuming it extended to the bank locker, which was a bona fide error without any fraudulent intent.
2. High Court's Dismissal of Writ Petition:
The High Court dismissed the writ petition under Section 482 Cr.P.C., finding no merit in the appellant-bank's plea to quash the FIR. The Supreme Court, however, emphasized that the High Court should have examined whether the FIR prima facie disclosed the ingredients of the alleged offences. The failure of the High Court to perform this duty led to the erroneous continuation of the proceedings against the appellant-bank.
3. Applicability of IPC Sections:
- Section 420 IPC: The FIR did not show inducement by the appellant-bank or its officials since inception, nor was there any fraudulent or dishonest intent. As such, the ingredients for Section 420 IPC were not met.
- Sections 406 and 409 IPC: There was no allegation of entrustment of property that the bank misappropriated or converted for its own use. Thus, these sections were inapplicable.
- Section 462 IPC: The absence of entrustment negated the applicability of this section.
- Sections 206, 217, and 201 IPC: These sections require mens rea, which was not evident in the appellant-bank's actions.
- Sections 34, 37, and 120B IPC: The FIR/complaint did not show any common intention or intentional cooperation in the alleged offences by the bank or its officials.
4. High Court's Role under Section 482 Cr.P.C.:
The Supreme Court reiterated that the High Court, while exercising its powers under Section 482 Cr.P.C., must evaluate whether the FIR prima facie makes out the ingredients of the offence. The High Court's failure to do so in this case resulted in an unjust continuation of the criminal proceedings.
5. Judgments Cited:
The Supreme Court referred to the principles laid down in the cases of Arnab Manoranjan Goswami and Bhajan Lal, emphasizing the necessity of a prima facie evaluation of the FIR's contents. The Court highlighted that the High Court should have assessed whether the allegations constituted any offence under the IPC.
6. Undue Hardship:
The Supreme Court concluded that the continuation of the criminal proceedings against the appellant-bank would cause undue hardship, as the FIR did not disclose any prima facie case against the bank or its officials. The Court found that the case fell within the categories outlined in Bhajan Lal, warranting the quashing of the FIR.
Conclusion:
The Supreme Court allowed the appeal, quashing the High Court's judgment and the FIR against the appellant-bank. The Court emphasized the importance of a prima facie evaluation of the FIR and reiterated the principles governing the exercise of inherent powers under Section 482 Cr.P.C. to prevent abuse of the process and secure the ends of justice.
Bank cleared of fraud charges as inadvertent error in ignoring restraint orders lacks criminal intent
SC quashed criminal proceedings against appellant-bank for alleged violations of IPC provisions including sections 420, 405, 409, and others. Court held that FIR failed to establish essential ingredients for charged offences including fraudulent inducement, criminal breach of trust, and mens rea. Bank's inadvertent error in ignoring restraint orders regarding lockers and accounts did not constitute criminal offence. No entrustment of property or dishonest misappropriation proven. Case fell under categories warranting quashing per Bhajan Lal precedent to prevent undue hardship.
Inadvertent error on the part of the bank officials ignoring restraint orders - FIR registered for the offences punishable under the different provisions of the IPC on certain officials of the appellant-bank - continuation of the criminal proceedings against the appellant-bank - mens rea of the officials of the appellant-bank or failure to disclose the commission of any offence - restraint order was imposed in respect of Bank Lockers, Bank Accounts and Fixed Deposits - As submitted that access of the bank locker given is in violation of Section 132(2) of the IT Act would attract the offence under Section 409 read with Section 405 of the IPC
HELD THAT:- In the present case, the FIR does not show that the appellant-bank had induced anyone since inception.
For bringing out the offence under the ambit of Section 420 IPC, the FIR must disclose the following ingredients:
(a) That the appellant-bank had induced anyone since inception;
(b) That the said inducement was fraudulent or dishonest; and
(c) That mens rea existed at the time of such inducement.
The appellant-bank is a juristic person and as such, a question of mens rea does not arise. However, even reading the FIR and the complaint at their face value, there is nothing to show that the appellant-bank or its staff members had dishonestly induced someone deceived to deliver any property to any person, and that the mens rea existed at the time of such inducement. As such, the ingredients to attract the offence under Section 420 IPC would not be available.
For bringing out the case under criminal breach of trust, it will have to be pointed out that a person, with whom entrustment of a property is made, has dishonestly misappropriated it, or converted it to his own use, or dishonestly used it, or disposed of that property.
In the present case, there is not even an allegation of entrustment of the property which the appellant-bank has misappropriated or converted for its own use to the detriment of the respondent No.5. As such, the provisions of Section 406 and 409 IPC would also not be applicable.
Since there was no entrustment of any property with the appellant-bank, the ingredients of Section 462 IPC are also not applicable.
Likewise, since the offences under Section 206, 217 and 201 of the IPC requires mens rea, the ingredients of the said Sections also would not be available against the appellant-bank.
FIR/complaint also does not show that the appellant-bank and its officers acted with any common intention or intentionally cooperated in the commission of any alleged offences. As such, the provisions of section 34, 37 and 120B of the IPC would also not be applicable.
We find that the present case would squarely fall within categories (2) and (3) of the law laid down by this Court in the case of Bhajan Lal and others [1990 (11) TMI 386 - SUPREME COURT]
The continuation of the criminal proceedings against the appellant-bank would cause undue hardship to the appellant-bank.
The impugned judgment and order passed by the learned Single Bench of the High Court of Judicature at Patna is quashed and set aside.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Banks can claim deduction for broken period interest when securities treated as stock-in-trade
Issues Involved:
1. Treatment of broken period interest in the context of income tax deductions.
2. Classification of government securities as stock-in-trade or investment.
3. Applicability of the decision in Vijaya Bank Ltd. v. Additional Commissioner of Income Tax to post-1989 scenarios.
4. Treatment of securities under the Banking Regulation Act and Income Tax Act.
5. Assessment of interest income under the appropriate head of income.
Issue-wise Detailed Analysis:
1. Treatment of Broken Period Interest:
The core issue in these appeals was whether broken period interest should be treated as a deductible expense under the Income Tax Act. The appellants argued that broken period interest should be deductible as revenue expenditure, as it is an inherent part of the banking business where securities are held as stock-in-trade. The Supreme Court held that broken period interest should not be considered part of the purchase price but should be allowed as revenue expenditure in the year of purchase of securities. This aligns with the decision of the Bombay High Court in American Express International Banking Corporation, which was approved by the Supreme Court in the case of Citi Bank NA.
2. Classification of Government Securities:
The classification of securities as stock-in-trade or investment is pivotal in determining the tax treatment of interest income. The Court noted that securities held by banks as part of their statutory liquidity requirements (SLR) could be classified into three categories: Held to Maturity (HTM), Available for Sale (AFS), and Held for Trading (HFT). AFS and HFT securities are generally treated as stock-in-trade, allowing the deduction of broken period interest. However, HTM securities, typically held until maturity, could be considered investments, and the deduction might not be applicable unless proven otherwise.
3. Applicability of Vijaya Bank Ltd. Decision:
The decision in Vijaya Bank Ltd. was based on the provisions of Sections 18 to 21 of the Income Tax Act, which were repealed in 1989. The Supreme Court clarified that the Vijaya Bank decision does not apply to cases post-1989, where securities are assessed under Section 28 as business income. The Court emphasized that the income from securities, when held as stock-in-trade, should be assessed under the head "profits and gains of business or profession."
4. Treatment of Securities under Banking and Income Tax Laws:
The Court reiterated that securities held by banks are typically part of their trading assets and should be treated as stock-in-trade. This is consistent with the Reserve Bank of India's guidelines and the Central Board of Direct Taxes' circulars, which recognize that banks may hold securities as part of their business operations rather than as long-term investments. The Court concluded that the treatment of securities in the books of accounts does not determine their classification for tax purposes.
5. Assessment of Interest Income:
The assessment of interest income from securities should be under the head "profits and gains of business or profession" if the securities are held as stock-in-trade. The Court noted that the method of accounting adopted by the banks, which included the deduction of broken period interest, did not result in any loss of tax revenue. The consistent practice of treating securities as stock-in-trade was upheld, and the broken period interest was allowed as a deductible expense.
Conclusion:
The Supreme Court allowed Civil Appeal Nos. 3291-3294 of 2009, setting aside the High Court's judgment and restoring the Tribunal's decisions. The Court dismissed the Revenue's appeals in other cases, subject to clarification regarding HTM securities. The judgment reinforced the principle that securities held as stock-in-trade by banks should be assessed as business income, allowing the deduction of broken period interest as revenue expenditure.
Banks can claim deduction for broken period interest when securities treated as stock-in-trade
SC held that banks can claim deduction for broken period interest when securities are treated as stock-in-trade. For AFS and HFT securities, which are always stock-in-trade, broken period interest deduction is available. For HTM securities, treatment depends on whether held as investment or stock-in-trade based on facts. If securities are stock-in-trade, broken period interest constitutes revenue expenditure eligible for deduction, not capital expenditure. The court restored the Tribunal's decision allowing the deduction, overturning the HC judgment that had disallowed it.
Treatment to be given to broken period interest - securities were treated as stock-in-trade - whether a deduction of the broken period interest can be claimed? - HELD THAT:- Initially, CBDT issued Circular No. 599 of 1991 and observed that the securities held by Banks must be recorded as their stock-in-trade. The circular was withdrawn in view of the decision of this Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd1. In the year 1998, RBI issued a circular dated 21st April 1998, stating that the Bank should not capitalise broken period interest paid to the seller as a part of cost but treat it as an item of expenditure under the profit and loss account.
A similar circular was issued on 21st April 2001, stating that the Bank should not capitalise the broken period interest paid to the seller as a cost but treated it as an item of expenditure under the profit and loss account. In 2007, the CBDT issued Circular No. 4 of 2007, observing that a taxpayer can have two portfolios.
The first can be an investment portfolio comprising securities, which are to be treated as capital assets, and the other can be a trading portfolio comprising stock-in-trade, which are to be treated as trading assets.
Banks are required to purchase Government securities to maintain the SLR. As per RBI’s guideline dated 16th October 2000, there are three categories of securities: HTM, AFS and HFT. As far as AFS and HFT are concerned, there is no difficulty. When these two categories of securities are purchased, obviously, the same are not investments but are always held by Banks as stock-in-trade. Therefore, the interest accrued on the said two categories of securities will have to be treated as income from the business of the Bank.
Thus, after the deduction of broken period interest is allowed, the entire interest earned or accrued during the particular year is put to tax. Thus, what is taxed is the real income earned on the securities. By selling the securities, Banks will earn profits. Even that will be the income considered under Section 28 after deducting the purchase price. Therefore, in these two categories of securities, the benefit of deduction of interest for the broken period will be available to Banks.
If deduction on account of broken period interest is not allowed, the broken period interest as capital expense will have to be added to the acquisition cost of the securities, which will then be deducted from the sale proceeds when such securities are sold in the subsequent years. Therefore, the profit earned from the sale would be reduced by the amount of broken period interest. Therefore, the exercise sought to be done by the Department is academic.
The securities of the HTM category are usually held for a long term till their maturity. Therefore, such securities usually are valued at cost price or face value. In many cases, Banks hold the same as investments. Whether the Bank has held HMT security as investment or stock-in-trade will depend on the facts of each case. HTM Securities can be said to be held as an investment (i) if the securities are actually held till maturity and are not transferred before and (ii) if they are purchased at their cost price or face value.
We may refer to a decision of this Court in Associated Industrial Development Company (P) Ltd., Calcutta [1971 (9) TMI 3 - SUPREME COURT] In the said decision, this Court held that whether a particular holding of shares is by way of investments or forms part of the STOCK-IN-TRADE is a matter which is within the knowledge of the assessee. Therefore, on facts, if it is found that HMT Security is held as an investment, the benefit of broken period interest will not be available. The position will be otherwise if it is held as a trading asset.
In the facts of the case, as the securities were treated as stock-in-trade, the interest on the broken period cannot be considered as capital expenditure and will have to be treated as revenue expenditure, which can be allowed as a deduction. The impugned judgment is based on the decision in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd [1990 (9) TMI 5 - SUPREME COURT] It also refers to the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of American Express International Banking Corporation2 and holds that the same was not correct. As noted earlier, the view taken in the American Express International Banking Corporation case has been expressly upheld by this Court in the case of Citi Bank NA3. Therefore, the impugned judgment cannot be sustained, and the view taken by the Tribunal will have to be restored.
AO held that the respondent Bank was liable to pay the broken period of interest as part of the price paid for the securities. hence, a deduction on the said amount was disallowed - The assessee could not succeed before the CIT (A). Before the Appellate Tribunal, reliance was placed on the decision of this Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd [1990 (9) TMI 5 - SUPREME COURT] Tribunal observed that the assessing officer had treated the interest income earned by the respondent Bank on securities as income from other sources. The Tribunal observed that the investments in securities are in stock-in-trade, and this fact has been accepted in the past by the Income Tax department. It was held that the securities in the category of HTM were also held as stock-in-trade, and income/loss arising out of such securities, including HTM securities, has been treated as business income/loss. The Appellate Tribunal held that the interest for the broken period would be admissible as a deduction, and the High Court confirmed the same. We may note here that the Tribunal followed the decision of HDFC Bank Ltd [2014 (8) TMI 119 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] We find no error in the view taken in this case.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Special Leave Petition Dismissed Due to 201-Day Filing Delay; Condonation Application Also Rejected
The Supreme Court dismissed the Special Leave Petition due to a delay of 201 days in filing, with unsatisfactory reasons for condonation. The application seeking condonation was also dismissed.
Special Leave Petition Dismissed Due to 201-Day Filing Delay; Condonation Application Also Rejected
The SC dismissed the Special Leave Petition due to a 201-day delay in filing, citing unsatisfactory reasons for condonation. The application for condonation of delay was also dismissed.
Validity of reopening of assessment u/s 147 - assessee argued non application of mind in granting approval u/s 151 and that is evident from the approval itself - Delay of 201 days in filing the special leave petition - As decided by HC [2023 (11) TMI 343 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] if only the PCIT had read the form for approval carefully with the order that was prepared by the AO under Section 148A(d) of the Act, the PCIT would not have come to the conclusion that there is any material to treat it as a fit case to issue notice under Section 148 or pass order under Section 148A(d) - Also there is default as Personal hearing not being granted - As in every case, before passing an order u/s 148A(d) of the Act, Respondents shall give a personal hearing if requested for by Petitioner.
HELD THAT:- There is a delay of 201 days in filing the special leave petition. The reasons assigned for seeking condonation of delay are neither satisfactory nor sufficient in law to condone the same. Hence, the application seeking condonation is dismissed.
Consequently, the Special Leave Petition is also dismissed.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Assessing officer cannot consider claims from revised returns filed beyond Section 139(5) statutory limitation period
Issues:
1. Validity of filing a revised return after the time prescribed by law.
2. Jurisdiction of the assessing officer to consider claims made in a revised return filed after the limitation period.
Analysis:
Issue 1: Validity of filing a revised return after the time prescribed by law
The appellant-assessee filed a return of income for the assessment year 1989-90 and subsequently filed a revised return. The Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) dismissed the appeal stating that the revised return filed later was barred by limitation under Section 139(5) of the Income Tax Act. The Tribunal partly allowed the appeal by remanding the case back to the assessing officer. The High Court set aside the Tribunal's order, emphasizing that after the revised return was barred by time, there was no provision to consider the claim made by the appellant. The Supreme Court analyzed the relevant provisions of the IT Act and previous judgments to conclude that filing a revised return after the limitation period specified in Section 139(5) is not permissible.
Issue 2: Jurisdiction of the assessing officer to consider claims made in a revised return filed after the limitation period
The appellant argued that the assessing officer could still consider the claim made regarding deduction of deferred revenue expenditure during the assessment proceedings, even if it was omitted in the original return. However, the respondent Department contended that after the revised return was barred by limitation, the assessing officer had no jurisdiction to entertain such claims. The Supreme Court referred to the provisions of the IT Act and previous judgments to establish that the assessing officer cannot entertain any claim made by the assessee outside the prescribed procedures. The Court highlighted that the Tribunal did not exercise its powers under Section 254 of the IT Act to consider the claim, and the assessing officer lacked jurisdiction to entertain claims made in a revised return filed after the limitation period.
In conclusion, the Supreme Court dismissed the appeal, upholding the High Court's decision that the assessing officer had no jurisdiction to consider the appellant's claim in the revised return filed after the prescribed time limit. The judgment reaffirmed the importance of adhering to statutory timelines and procedures outlined in the Income Tax Act for filing revised returns and making claims during assessment proceedings.
Assessing officer cannot consider claims from revised returns filed beyond Section 139(5) statutory limitation period
SC held that assessing officer lacks jurisdiction to consider claims made in revised returns filed beyond the statutory limitation period under Section 139(5) of IT Act. The Tribunal erred in directing the assessing officer to consider appellant's claim from a time-barred revised return dated 29th October 1991. Court distinguished Wipro Finance Ltd case, noting it concerned Tribunal's appellate powers under Section 254, not assessing officer's jurisdiction over time-barred claims. Following Goetzge (India) Ltd precedent, assessing officer cannot entertain claims outside statutory provisions. HC's order setting aside Tribunal's direction was upheld.
Non cognizance of the revised return filled beyond period of limitation - Validity of filing a revised return after the time prescribed by law - High Court proceeded to set aside the order of the Tribunal on the ground that after the revised return was barred by time, there was no provision to consider the claim made by the appellant - HELD THAT:- We have carefully perused the judgment of this Court in the case of Wipro Finance Ltd [2022 (4) TMI 694 - SUPREME COURT] - The issue which arose before this Court was not regarding the power of the assessing officer to consider the claim after the revised return was barred by time. This Court considered the appellate power of the Appellate Tribunal under Section 254 of the IT Act.
In this case, the Court did not consider the question of the power of the assessing officer to consider a claim made after a revised return was barred by time. This Court considered the appellate powers of the Tribunal u/s 254. Moreover, this was a case where the department gave no objection for enabling the assessee to set up a fresh claim.
In the case of Goetzge (India) Ltd [2006 (3) TMI 75 - SUPREME COURT] this Court held that the assessing officer cannot entertain any claim made by the assessee otherwise than by following the provisions of the IT Act. In this case, there is no dispute that when a revised return dated 29th October 1991 was filed, it was barred by limitation in terms of section 139(5) of the IT Act.
Tribunal has not exercised its power u/s 254 of the IT Act to consider the claim. Instead, the Tribunal directed the assessing officer to consider the appellant's claim. The assessing officer had no jurisdiction to consider the claim made by the assessee in the revised return filed after the time prescribed by Section 139(5) for filing a revised return had already expired.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Section 148 reassessment notices issued July-September 2022 valid if within surviving time limits under Income Tax Act with TOLA
1. ISSUES PRESENTED and CONSIDERED
a. Whether the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 (TOLA) and the notifications issued under it apply to reassessment notices issued after 1 April 2021, particularly in light of the substitution of Sections 147 to 151 of the Income Tax Act by the Finance Act 2021.
b. Whether the reassessment notices issued under Section 148 of the new regime (post 1 April 2021) between July and September 2022 are valid, especially considering the time limits prescribed under the Income Tax Act read with TOLA and the procedural requirements including prior sanction under Section 151.
2. ISSUE-WISE DETAILED ANALYSIS
a. Applicability of TOLA to reassessment notices issued after 1 April 2021
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The Income Tax Act originally prescribed time limits and procedural safeguards for reassessment notices under Sections 147 to 151. These provisions were substantially amended by the Finance Act 2021, effective from 1 April 2021, introducing a new regime with altered time limits and sanctioning authorities.
TOLA was enacted in 2020 to provide relief during the COVID-19 pandemic by extending time limits for completion or compliance of actions under specified Acts, including the Income Tax Act, for actions falling due between 20 March 2020 and 31 March 2021. The Central Government issued notifications extending these time limits further, up to 30 June 2021.
In Ashish Agarwal (supra), the Court held that reassessment notices issued under the old regime after 1 April 2021 should be deemed to be show cause notices under the new regime, balancing the interests of Revenue and assesses.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Court observed that the Income Tax Act post 1 April 2021 must be read with the substituted provisions introduced by the Finance Act 2021. However, TOLA, enacted prior to the Finance Act 2021, applies to any action or proceeding falling for completion between 20 March 2020 and 31 March 2021, irrespective of subsequent amendments, due to its non obstante clause.
The Court held that TOLA's extension of time limits applies to the Income Tax Act even after 1 April 2021, provided the action falls within the specified period. The time limits prescribed under Section 149 of the Income Tax Act are to be read in conjunction with the extensions under TOLA and its notifications.
Key evidence and findings: The Court examined the text of Section 3(1) of TOLA, the Finance Act 2021's substitution of Sections 147 to 151, and the notifications issued under TOLA extending deadlines. It also considered the legislative intent behind TOLA-to provide relief during the pandemic-and the procedural safeguards introduced by the Finance Act 2021.
Application of law to facts: The reassessment notices issued between 1 April 2021 and 30 June 2021, although under the old regime, fall within the extended time limits under TOLA. The Court reasoned that TOLA's non obstante clause overrides conflicting provisions in the Income Tax Act to the extent of time limit relaxation, thus allowing reassessment notices issued in this period to be valid if other conditions are met.
Treatment of competing arguments: The respondents argued that TOLA ceased to apply after 31 March 2021 and could not extend time limits under the new regime, especially since the Finance Act 2021 substituted the old provisions. The Court rejected this, holding that TOLA applies to actions falling due in the specified period regardless of subsequent amendments, and that the Income Tax Act must be read harmoniously with TOLA.
Conclusions: TOLA and its notifications apply to reassessment notices issued after 1 April 2021 if the relevant action falls within the period covered by TOLA. The time limits for issuance of notices and sanction under Sections 149 and 151 of the Income Tax Act are extended accordingly.
b. Validity of reassessment notices issued under Section 148 of the new regime between July and September 2022
Relevant legal framework and precedents: The Finance Act 2021 introduced a new regime with reduced time limits (three years generally, ten years for substantial escaped income exceeding Rs. 50 lakhs) and different sanctioning authorities under Section 151. The first proviso to Section 149(1)(b) restricts issuance of notices for assessment years beginning on or before 1 April 2021 if barred under the old regime's time limits.
Ashish Agarwal (supra) created a legal fiction deeming notices issued under the old regime after 1 April 2021 as show cause notices under Section 148A(b) of the new regime, with directions for assessing officers to supply relevant material and allow responses before proceeding.
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that reassessment notices issued under the new regime in July-September 2022 must be issued within the surviving time limits under the Income Tax Act read with TOLA, accounting for the period during which the proceedings were stayed under the legal fiction created by Ashish Agarwal (supra) and the time allowed for responses.
The Court explained that the legal fiction effectively "stopped the clock" on limitation from the date of issuance of the deemed show cause notice until the supply of relevant material and information to the assessee, plus the period allowed for response. The assessing officer must then issue the reassessment notice within the remaining time.
Key evidence and findings: The Court analyzed the third proviso to Section 149 excluding periods of stay or time allowed to the assessee from limitation computation. It also examined the procedural requirements under Section 151 for prior sanction by specified authorities, which must be complied with for the notice to be valid.
Application of law to facts: The reassessment notices issued in mid-2022 were challenged as time-barred and lacking proper sanction. The Court found that if the notices were issued beyond the surviving time limits after accounting for TOLA extensions and the stay period, they are invalid. Further, the sanction must be obtained from the appropriate authority as per the new regime's Section 151.
Treatment of competing arguments: The Revenue contended that invalidating these notices would frustrate the purpose of Ashish Agarwal (supra) and that TOLA's extensions apply. The respondents argued that the new regime's time limits apply strictly and that TOLA cannot extend time beyond 31 March 2021. The Court balanced these views, affirming TOLA's applicability but emphasizing strict compliance with time limits and sanction requirements under the new regime.
Conclusions: Reassessment notices issued under the new regime after July 2022 must be issued within the surviving time limits under the Income Tax Act read with TOLA, considering the stay period and response time. Notices issued beyond this period or without proper sanction are invalid.
c. Sanction of the specified authority under Section 151
Relevant legal framework and precedents: Section 151 requires prior sanction of specified authorities before issuing reassessment notices. The old regime prescribed Joint Commissioner or higher authorities depending on time elapsed; the new regime prescribes Principal Commissioner or higher authorities, with higher level authorities involved if more than three years have elapsed.
In Ashish Agarwal (supra), the Court waived the requirement of prior approval for certain stages under Section 148A but not for issuance of notice under Section 148 or order under Section 148A(d).
Court's interpretation and reasoning: The Court held that sanction is a jurisdictional precondition. Non-compliance with Section 151 affects the jurisdiction of the assessing officer and renders the notice invalid. TOLA extends the time for grant of sanction if the time limit for sanction falls within the TOLA period.
Key evidence and findings: The Court examined the timelines for sanction under both regimes and the effect of TOLA's extension of time limits. It found that sanction must be obtained from the appropriate authority as per the time elapsed and regime applicable at the time of issuance.
Application of law to facts: Notices issued without proper sanction per the new regime and beyond the extended time limits are invalid. The Court emphasized the importance of strict adherence to procedural safeguards to prevent harassment and protect vested rights.
Treatment of competing arguments: The Revenue argued for a liberal reading of sanction requirements in light of TOLA and Ashish Agarwal (supra). The Court acknowledged the need for relief due to the pandemic but maintained that jurisdictional safeguards cannot be ignored.
Conclusions: Sanction by the specified authority under Section 151 is mandatory. TOLA extends the time for sanction where applicable. Failure to obtain proper sanction invalidates the reassessment notice.
3. SIGNIFICANT HOLDINGS
"Section 3(1) of TOLA applies notwithstanding anything contained in the specified Act and extends the time limits for completion or compliance of any action falling between 20 March 2020 and 31 March 2021, including reassessment notices under the Income Tax Act, even after the substitution of Sections 147 to 151 by the Finance Act 2021."
"The proviso to Section 149(1)(b) of the new regime limits the retrospective operation of the extended time limits by providing that no notice under Section 148 shall be issued for assessment years beginning on or before 1 April 2021 if such notice could not have been issued at that time under the old regime's time limits."
"The reassessment notices issued under the old regime between 1 April 2021 and 30 June 2021 shall be deemed to be show cause notices under Section 148A(b) of the new regime, and the time during which these notices were stayed by court order and the time allowed to the assessee to respond shall be excluded for computing limitation under the third proviso to Section 149."
"Sanction of the specified authority under Section 151 is a jurisdictional precondition for issuing reassessment notices. TOLA extends the time for grant of sanction where applicable, but failure to obtain proper sanction invalidates the notice."
"The reassessment notices issued under Section 148 of the new regime between July and September 2022 must be issued within the surviving time limits under the Income Tax Act read with TOLA, considering the exclusion of the stay period and response time. Notices issued beyond this period or without proper sanction are liable to be set aside."
"The directions issued under Article 142 in Ashish Agarwal (supra) were exercised to balance the equities between the Revenue and the assesses, and do not constitute a binding ratio but a procedural remedy limited to the peculiar facts of that case."
"The Income Tax Act and TOLA must be read harmoniously to give effect to the legislative intent of both statutes, ensuring that the machinery provisions are workable and the relief intended by TOLA is effective."
Section 148 reassessment notices issued July-September 2022 valid if within surviving time limits under Income Tax Act with TOLA
SC held that reassessment notices issued under Section 148 of the new regime between July-September 2022 are valid if issued within surviving time limits under the Income Tax Act read with TOLA. The Court clarified that TOLA continues to apply post-April 2021 for actions falling between March 2020-March 2021. Directions in Ashish Agarwal extend to all 90,000 reassessment notices issued under old regime during April-June 2021, deemed as show cause notices under new regime. Notices issued beyond surviving time limits are time-barred and invalid. Multiple HC judgments set aside to this extent.
Validity of reassessment notices/ proceedings - scope of notices issued under Section 148 of the new regime between July and September 2022 - Application of TOLA to the Income Tax Act after 1 April 2021 - TOLA enacted in the backdrop of the COVID-19 pandemic by extending time limits for completion or compliance of actions under specified Acts - Interpretation of expression “any” in Section 3(1) of TOLA - non obstante clause - Principles of strict interpretation and workability - Principle of harmonious construction - expression “any cause or matter” mentioned under Article 142 - Effect of the legal fiction - Whether TOLA and notifications issued under it will also apply to reassessment notices issued after 1 April 2021? - Whether the reassessment notices issued u/s 148 of the new regime between July and September 2022 are valid?
HELD THAT:- The exercise of the jurisdiction under Article 142 is meant to supplement the existing legal framework to do complete justice between the parties. In a given circumstance, this Court can supplement a legal framework to craft a just outcome when strict adherence to a source of law and exclusive rule based theories create inequitable results.
The directions issued by this Court under Article 142 cannot be considered as a ratio because they are issued based on the peculiar facts and circumstances of the cause or matter before this Court. In State v. Kalyan Singh [2017 (4) TMI 1564 - SUPREME COURT] this Court observed that a judgment has two components: (a) declaration of law; and (b) directions. In Bir Singh v. Mukesh Kumar [2019 (2) TMI 547 - SUPREME COURT] it was held that what is binding on all courts under Article 141 is the declaration of law, and not the directions issued under Article 142.
This Court has exercised its jurisdiction under Article 142 in tax matters where the actions of the Revenue are not in accordance with the law.
In Whirlpool of India Ltd. v. CIT [2000 (2) TMI 15 - SUPREME COURT] this Court directed the Income Tax Officer to give effect to the order of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal by disallowing a particular deduction. In CIT v. Greenworld Corporation [2009 (5) TMI 14 - SUPREME COURT] the issue before this Court was whether a Commissioner of Income Tax appropriately issued directions under Section 263 of the Income Tax Act to an assessing officer to reopen assessments. It was held that the facts of the case did not merit the CIT to issue directions to the assessing officer. Consequently, this Court termed the reassessment notice issued by the assessing officer to be illegal and exercised its jurisdiction under Article 142 to direct the reopening of the assessment by an appropriate assessing authority.
The scope of Ashish Agarwal [2022 (5) TMI 240 - SUPREME COURT] extended to all the reassessment notices issued between 1 April 2021 and 30 June 2021 under the old regime - The purpose of this Court in deeming the reassessment notices issued under the old regime as show cause notices under the new regime was two-fold: (i) to strike a balance between the rights of the assesses and the Revenue which issued approximately ninety thousand reassessment notices after 1 April 2021 under the old regime; and (ii) to avoid any further appeals before this Court by the Revenue on the same issue by challenging similar judgments and orders of the High Courts (arising from approximately nine thousand writ petitions).
Ashish Agarwal [supra] was primarily concerned with the validity of the reassessment notices issued between 1 April 2021 and 30 June 2021 under the old regime. The scope of the directions in Ashish Agarwal (supra) applied PAN INDIA, including all the ninety thousand reassessment notices issued under the old regime during the period 1 April 2021 and 30 June 2021,
In Ashish Agarwal (supra), this Court was aware of the fact that it could not have used its jurisdiction under Article 142 to affect the vested rights of the assesses by deeming Section 148 notices under the old regime as Section 148 notices under the new regime. Hence, it deemed the reassessment notices issued under the old regime as show cause notices u/s 148A(b) of the new regime. Further, the Court directed the Revenue to provide all the relevant material or information to the assesses and thereafter allowed the assesses to respond to the show cause notice by availing all the defences, including those available u/s 149. Thus, the Court balanced the equities between the Revenue and the assesses by giving effect to the legislative scheme of reassessment as contained under the new regime. It supplemented the existing legal framework of the procedure of reassessment under the Income Tax Act with a remedy grounded in equitable standards.
Effect of the legal fiction - A legal fiction is a supposition of law that a thing or event exists even though, in reality, it does not exist. The word “deemed” is used to treat a thing or event as something, which otherwise it may not have been, with all the attendant consequences.154 The effect of a legal fiction is that “a position which otherwise would not obtain is deemed to obtain under the circumstances.”
Under Section 148A(b), the assessing officer has to comply with two requirements: (i) issuance of a show cause notice; and (ii) supply of all the relevant information which forms the basis of the show cause notice. The supply of the relevant material and information allows the assessee to respond to the show cause notice. The deemed notices were effectively incomplete because the other requirement of supplying the relevant material or information to the assesses was not fulfilled. The second requirement could only have been fulfilled by the Revenue by an actual supply of the relevant material or information that formed the basis of the deemed notice.
While creating the legal fiction in Ashish Agarwal (supra), this Court was cognizant of the fact that the assessing officers were effectively inhibited from performing their responsibility under Section 148A until the requirement of supply of relevant material and information to the assesses was fulfilled. This Court lifted the inhibition by directing the assessing officers to supply the assesses with the relevant material and information relied upon by the Revenue within thirty days from the date of the judgment. Thus, during the period between the issuance of the deemed notices and the date of judgment in Ashish Agarwal (supra), the assessing officers were deemed to have been prohibited from proceeding with the reassessment proceedings.
To summarize, the combined effect of the legal fiction and the directions issued by this Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra) is that the show cause notices that were deemed to have been issued during the period between 1 April 2021 and 30 June 2021 were stayed till the date of supply of the relevant information and material by the assessing officer to the assessee. After the supply of the relevant material and information to the assessee, time begins to run for the assesses to respond to the show cause notices.
In Ashish Agarwal (supra), this Court provided two weeks to the assesses to reply to the show cause notices. This period of two weeks is also liable to be excluded from the computation of limitation given the third proviso to Section 149. Hence, the total time that is excluded for computation of limitation for the deemed notices is: (i) the time during which the show cause notices were effectively stayed, that is, from the date of issuance of the deemed notice between 1 April 2021 and 30 June 2021 till the supply of relevant information or material by the assessing officers to the assesses in terms of the directions in Ashish Agarwal (supra); and (ii) two weeks allowed to the assesses to respond to the show cause notices.
Interplay of Ashish Agarwal with TOLA - Because of the legal fiction, the deemed show cause notices will also come into effect from 1 May 2021. After accounting for all the exclusions, the assessing officer will have sixty-one days [days between 1 May 2021 and 30 June 2021] to issue a notice under Section 148 of the new regime. This time starts ticking for the assessing officer after receiving the response of the assessee. In this instance, if the assessee submits the response on 18 June 2022, the assessing officer will have sixty-one days from 18 June 2022 to issue a reassessment notice under Section 148 of the new regime. Thus, in this illustration, the time limit for issuance of a notice under Section 148 of the new regime will end on 18 August 2022.
In Ashish Agarwal (supra), this Court allowed the assesses to avail all the defences, including the defence of expiry of the time limit specified under Section 149(1). In the instant appeals, the reassessment notices pertain to the assessment years 2013-2014, 2014-2015, 2015-2016, 2016-2017, and 2017-2018. To assume jurisdiction to issue notices under Section 148 with respect to the relevant assessment years, an assessing officer has to: (i) issue the notices within the period prescribed under Section 149(1) of the new regime read with TOLA; and (ii) obtain the previous approval of the authority specified under Section 151. A notice issued without complying with the preconditions is invalid as it affects the jurisdiction of the assessing officer. Therefore, the reassessment notices issued under Section 148 of the new regime, which are in pursuance of the deemed notices, ought to be issued within the time limit surviving under the Income Tax Act read with TOLA. A reassessment notice issued beyond the surviving time limit will be time barred.
Thus, we conclude that:
a. After 1 April 2021, the Income Tax Act has to be read along with the substituted provisions;
b. TOLA will continue to apply to the Income Tax Act after 1 April 2021 if any action or proceeding specified under the substituted provisions of the Income Tax Act falls for completion between 20 March 2020 and 31 March 2021;
c. Section 3(1) of TOLA overrides Section 149 of the Income Tax Act only to the extent of relaxing the time limit for issuance of a reassessment notice under Section 148;
d. TOLA will extend the time limit for the grant of sanction by the authority specified under Section 151. The test to determine whether TOLA will apply to Section 151 of the new regime is this: if the time limit of three years from the end of an assessment year falls between 20 March 2020 and 31 March 2021, then the specified authority under Section 151(i) has extended time till 30 June 2021 to grant approval;
e. In the case of Section 151 of the old regime, the test is: if the time limit of four years from the end of an assessment year falls between 20 March 2020 and 31 March 2021, then the specified authority under Section 151(2) has extended time till 31 March 2021 to grant approval;
f. The directions in Ashish Agarwal (supra) will extend to all the ninety thousand reassessment notices issued under the old regime during the period 1 April 2021 and 30 June 2021;
g. The time during which the show cause notices were deemed to be stayed is from the date of issuance of the deemed notice between 1 April 2021 and 30 June 2021 till the supply of relevant information and material by the assessing officers to the assesses in terms of the directions issued by this Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra), and the period of two weeks allowed to the assesses to respond to the show cause notices; and
h. The assessing officers were required to issue the reassessment notice under Section 148 of the new regime within the time limit surviving under the Income Tax Act read with TOLA. All notices issued beyond the surviving period are time barred and liable to be set aside;
The judgments of the High Courts rendered in Union of India v. Rajeev Bansal [2023 (2) TMI 1081 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT], Keenara Industries Pvt. Ltd. v. ITO, Surat [2023 (3) TMI 104 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT], J M Financial and Investment Consultancy Services Pvt. Ltd. v. ACIT [2022 (4) TMI 1446 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT], Siemens Financial Services Pvt. Ltd. v. DCIT [2023 (9) TMI 552 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT], Geeta Agarwal v. ITO [2022 (10) TMI 1192 - RAJASTHAN HIGH COURT], Ambika Iron and Steel Pvt Ltd v. PCIT [2022 (1) TMI 1291 - ORISSA HIGH COURT], Twylight Infrastructure Pvt Ltd v. ITO [2024 (1) TMI 759 - DELHI HIGH COURT], Ganesh Dass Khanna v. ITO [2023 (11) TMI 763 - DELHI HIGH COURT] and other judgments of the High Courts which relied on these judgments, are set aside to the extent of the observations made in this judgment.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
SC rejects retrospective application of Section 80DD amendments for disabled dependent maintenance deduction benefits
Issues:
1. Interpretation of Section 80DD of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
2. Retroactive application of the amendment to Section 80DD.
3. Concerns regarding the benefits to disabled persons under the policy.
4. Compliance with previous court orders and legislative amendments.
Analysis:
Issue 1: Interpretation of Section 80DD of the Income Tax Act, 1961
The writ petition sought the execution of decisions by the Central Information Commission and the Apex Court related to Section 80DD of the Income Tax Act. The provision deals with deductions for medical treatment and maintenance of dependents with disabilities. The Parliament amended Section 80DD through the Finance Act, 2022, to include provisions for annuity or lump sum payments for disabled dependents upon the death of the subscriber.
Issue 2: Retroactive Application of the Amendment
The petitioner argued for retrospective application of the amendment to policies predating 2014, allowing subscribers to discontinue policies upon turning 60. However, the Court emphasized the policy's objective to provide for disabled dependents post the subscriber's demise. The Court rejected the plea for retrospective application, citing the commercial nature of insurance contracts and the importance of upholding the policy's original intent.
Issue 3: Concerns Regarding Benefits to Disabled Persons
The Court highlighted the significance of ensuring the policy's benefits reach disabled persons as intended. It stressed the caregiver or subscriber's responsibility to provide for disabled dependents post their demise, emphasizing the policy's purpose. The Court deemed retroactive application detrimental to disabled persons' interests and upheld the sanctity of insurance contracts.
Issue 4: Compliance with Previous Court Orders and Legislative Amendments
The Court acknowledged the Parliament's amendment to Section 80DD in response to earlier court orders and disposed of a contempt petition accordingly. It considered international proclamations and domestic legislation related to the rights of persons with disabilities in reaching its decision to not apply the amendment retrospectively.
In conclusion, the Court dismissed the plea for retrospective application of the amendment to Section 80DD, emphasizing the policy's objective to benefit disabled dependents post the subscriber's demise. The judgment was in line with previous court orders and legislative amendments, ensuring compliance with the law and upholding the interests of disabled persons.
SC rejects retrospective application of Section 80DD amendments for disabled dependent maintenance deduction benefits
The SC rejected a petition seeking retrospective application of amendments to Section 80DD regarding deduction for maintenance of disabled dependents. The petitioner sought to apply 2014 amendments to pre-2014 Jeevan Adhar policies allowing discontinuation at age 60. The SC held that retrospective application would defeat the policy's objective of providing post-demise benefits to disabled persons and would be against their interests. The Court noted that insurance contracts are commercial agreements with fixed terms, and subscribers had already availed Section 80DD benefits under original terms. The amendment's prospective application was deemed sufficient to address grievances.
Deduction u/s 80DD - Deduction in respect of maintenance including medical treatment of a dependent who is a person with disability - payment of annuity of a lump sum amount for the benefit of a dependant, being a person with disability, in the event of death of the individual or the member of a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) in whose name the subscription to the scheme stipulated in the said provision has been made - HELD THAT:- We find it difficult to accept the plea made by petitioner to the effect that the said amendment be applied retrospectively to policies which were taken prior to 2014 so that the benefit of the amendment is given to those subscribers also. The reasons are not far to see. The whole object of Jeevan Adhar Policy is to benefit disabled persons by making provision by the subscriber post his demise.
The concern and apprehension of a caregiver or subscriber of a policy for a disabled family member or other person for whose benefit the policy is taken after the demise of the caregiver is of utmost significance. It is only with that object that the caregiver or a subscriber would take such a policy so that he would not leave a disabled person in the lurch on his demise.
If that is the object of the policy then we do not think the subscriber or the caregiver of the subscriber should be given the liberty to discontinue the policy during his lifetime on attaining 60 years of age. That would only go against the object with which the policy has been taken and against the interest of the beneficiary, namely, a disabled person.
We do not think that the plea for retrospective operation of the amendment is in the interest of the disabled persons nor can this Court give a retrospective operation to the amendment. This is particularly having regard to the fact that an insurance contract is in a sense, a commercial contract, having certain terms and conditions and the sub-stratum of the contract cannot be removed by giving a retrospective operation to the amendment. The benefit under Section 80DD of the Act would have been availed by the subscribers at the time when they have subscribed to the policy.
It is also relevant to note that the order passed by this Court [2023 (2) TMI 1336 - SUPREME COURT] (the earlier writ petition), this Court disposed of the contempt petition for the reason that the Respondent-Union of India had amended Section 80DD of the Act via Budget 2022-2023 Finance Act and therefore, the grievance of the persons like the petitioner had stood addressed though with prospective effect.
As considered the Proclamation on the Full Participation and Equality of the People with Disabilities in the Asian and Pacific Region, 1992; and the subsequent enactments, namely, the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995 which has been substituted by the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, as well as the Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities and Optional Protocol 2006; and, the provisions of the Life Insurance Corporation Act, 1956.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Special Leave Petitions dismissed despite condoned delay, consistent with earlier related order
The Supreme Court of India, through Hon'ble Justices B.V. Nagarathna and Nongmeikapam Kotiswar Singh, heard the Special Leave Petitions concerning the assessee M/s Serajuddin & Co. After condoning delay, the Court stated, "Having regard to the facts and circumstances of the case(s), we are not inclined to interfere in the matters." Consequently, the Special Leave Petitions were dismissed. This order follows the earlier order dated 28.11.2023 in SLP(C) Dy. No.44989/2023 involving the same assessee. All pending applications stand disposed of.
Special Leave Petitions dismissed despite condoned delay, consistent with earlier related order
The SC dismissed Special Leave Petitions filed by the assessee after condoning delay. The Court, comprising Justices B.V. Nagarathna and Nongmeikapam Kotiswar Singh, declined to interfere in the matter considering the facts and circumstances of the case. This order was consistent with an earlier order dated 28.11.2023 in a related SLP involving the same assessee. All pending applications were disposed of along with the dismissal of the petitions.
Assessment u/s 153A - Valid approval under Section 153D - Prior approval necessary for assessment in cases of search or requisition.
As decided by HC [2022 (12) TMI 1021 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] approval with respect to "each assessment year" is to be obtained by the AO on the draft assessment order before passing the assessment orders u/s 153A. In the instant case, the draft assessment orders in 123 cases, i.e. for 123 assessment years placed before the Approving Authority on 30.12.2017 and 31.12.2017 were approved on 31.12.2017, which not only included the cases of respondent-assessee but the cases of other groups as well. It is humanly impossible to go through the records of 123 cases in one day to apply independent mind to appraise the material before the Approving Authority.
HELD THAT:- Having regard to the facts and circumstances of the case(s), we are not inclined to interfere in the matters.
These Special Leave Petitions are dismissed.
This order is passed following the earlier order passed in M/s Serajuddin & Co., [2023 (11) TMI 1254 - SC ORDER] which is in respect of the very same assessee.
AI TextQuick Glance (AI)Headnote
Liquor vendors who buy vending rights through auction are not "buyers" under Section 206C Income Tax Act
Issues Involved:
1. Applicability of Section 206C of the Income Tax Act to the appellant.
2. Definition and classification of "buyer" under Explanation(a) to Section 206C.
3. Justification of the High Court in rejecting the challenge to the orders made by the appellant.
4. Jurisdiction of the assessing officer.
5. Violation of principles of natural justice.
Issue-wise Detailed Analysis:
1. Applicability of Section 206C of the Income Tax Act to the Appellant:
The core issue was whether the provisions of Section 206C of the Income Tax Act were applicable to the appellant, Mysore Sales International Limited, which is a Karnataka Government undertaking engaged in the business of manufacturing arrack. The assessing officer had held that the appellant was a "seller" and the liquor vendors were "buyers" under Section 206C, thus obligating the appellant to collect income tax at source (TDS) from the liquor vendors. The appellant argued that it was a public sector undertaking and that the liquor vendors did not obtain arrack through auction but only obtained the right to retail vend arrack, making Section 206C inapplicable.
2. Definition and Classification of "Buyer" under Explanation(a) to Section 206C:
The definition of "buyer" under Explanation(a) to Section 206C was crucial. The appellant contended that the liquor vendors did not qualify as "buyers" because they did not obtain arrack through auction, and the sale price of arrack was fixed by the Excise Commissioner, thus falling under the exclusion clause in Explanation(a)(iii). The Court found that the excise contractors were only shortlisted through auction for the right to retail vend and did not obtain arrack through auction. The sale price of arrack was fixed within a statutory range, satisfying both conditions under Explanation(a)(iii), thus excluding the liquor vendors from the definition of "buyer."
3. Justification of the High Court in Rejecting the Challenge to the Orders Made by the Appellant:
The High Court had dismissed the writ petitions and writ appeals filed by the appellant, affirming the orders of the assessing officer. The Supreme Court found that the High Court erred in its interpretation of Section 206C and the definition of "buyer." The High Court's decision was set aside as it was not justified in dismissing the appellant's challenge.
4. Jurisdiction of the Assessing Officer:
The appellant argued that the assessing officer did not have the jurisdiction to pass the orders under Section 206C(6) of the Income Tax Act, as jurisdiction was conferred upon the Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax (TDS)-1, Bengaluru. The Single Judge had rejected this contention as a technicality. The Supreme Court did not delve deeply into this issue, focusing instead on the applicability of Section 206C and the definition of "buyer."
5. Violation of Principles of Natural Justice:
The appellant contended that the orders dated 17.01.2001 were passed in violation of the principles of natural justice as no adequate opportunity of hearing was given. The Supreme Court held that even though the statute may be silent on the requirement of notice and hearing, principles of natural justice must be followed when an order entails adverse civil consequences. The Court emphasized the necessity of notice and a reasonable opportunity of hearing before passing an order under Section 206C(6).
Conclusion:
The Supreme Court allowed the appeal, setting aside the judgments of the Division Bench and the Single Judge of the High Court, as well as the orders dated 17.01.2001 passed by the Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax (TDS)-1 under Section 206C(6) of the Income Tax Act. The Court held that Section 206C was not applicable to Mysore Sales and that the liquor vendors could not be termed as "buyers" within the meaning of Explanation(a) to Section 206C. The appeal was allowed without any order as to costs.
Liquor vendors who buy vending rights through auction are not "buyers" under Section 206C Income Tax Act
SC held that liquor vendors who purchased vending rights through auction are not "buyers" under Section 206C of the Income Tax Act. The court distinguished between two separate transactions: acquisition of vending rights through auction and subsequent procurement of liquor for retail sale. Since vendors obtained goods through statutory permits (not auction) and sold at statutorily fixed prices within prescribed ranges, they satisfied the exclusion criteria under Explanation(a)(iii) to Section 206C. Additionally, SC ruled that before passing orders under Section 206C(6), assessing officers must provide adequate notice and hearing opportunities, as such orders carry adverse civil consequences requiring adherence to natural justice principles.
Applicability of Section 206C - Collection of tax at source - liquor vendors (contractors) who bought the vending rights from the appellant on auction - Determination of Profits and gains from the business of trading in alcoholic liquor, forest produce, scrap, etc. - such liquor vendors can be termed as “buyer” within the meaning of Explanation(a) to Section 206C or excluded from the said definition of “buyer” as per clause (iii) of Explanation (a) to Section 206C? - HELD THAT:- By the process of auction etc., the excise contractors are only shortlisted and conferred the right to retail vend of arrack in their respective areas. It cannot be said that by virtue of the auction, certain quantities of arrack are purchased by the excise contractors. Thus, at this stage there are two transactions, each distinct. The first transaction is shortlisting of excise contractors by a process of auction etc. for the right to retail vend. The second transaction, which is contingent upon the first transaction, is obtaining of arrack for retail vending by the excise contractors on the strength of the permits issued to them post successful shortlisting following auction. Therefore, it is evidently clear that arrack is not obtained by the excise contractors by way of auction. What is obtained by way of auction is the right to vend the arrack on retail on the strength of permits granted, following successful shortlisting on the basis of auction. Thus, the first condition under clause (iii) is satisfied
After the arrack is obtained in the above manner by the excise contractor, the requirement of the second condition under Explanation(a)(iii) is that he has to sell the same in the area(s) allotted to him at the sale price fixed as per Rule 4 of the 1967 Rules. The language of the second condition is that the sale price of such goods to be sold by the buyer is fixed by or under any state statute. As already noted above, Rule 4 of the 1967 Rules enables the excise contractor to sell the arrack in retail at a price within the range of minimum floor price and maximum ceiling price which is fixed by the Excise Commissioner.
The sale price is fixed by the statute but within a particular range beyond which price, either on the higher side or on the lower side, the arrack cannot be sold by the excise contractor in retail. Therefore, the arrack is sold at a price which is fixed statutorily under Rule 4 of the 1967 Rules and thus the second condition stands satisfied.
Since both the conditions as mandated under Explanation(a)(iii) are satisfied, the excise contractors or the liquor vendors selling arrack would not come within the ambit of “buyer” as defined under Explanation(a) to Section 206C of the Income Tax Act.
AO declared that Mysore Sales had failed to collect and deposit an amount as TDS from the excise contractors - As per sub-section (3), any person collecting TDS under sub-section (1) shall have to pay the same to the credit of the central government within seven days. Requirement under sub-section (5A) is that every person collecting TDS in terms of Section 206C (1) shall prepare half yearly returns for the periods ending on 30th September and 31st March respectively for each financial year and thereafter to submit the same before the competent assessing officer. Sub-rule (6) mandates that if any person responsible for collecting TDS fails to collect the same, he shall have to deposit the said amount to the credit of the central government notwithstanding failure to deduct TDS.
Though there is no express provision in sub-section (6) or any other provision of Section 206C of the Income Tax Act regarding issuance of notice and affording hearing to such a person before passing an order thereunder, nonetheless, it is evident that an order passed under Section 206C(6) of the Income Tax Act, as in the present case, is prejudicial to the person concerned as such an order entails adverse civil consequences.
It is trite law that when an order entails adverse civil consequences or is prejudicial to the person concerned, it is essential that principles of natural justice are followed. In the instant case, though show cause notice was issued to the assessee to which reply was also filed, the same would not be adequate having regard to the consequences that such an order passed under Section 206C(6) of the Income Tax Act would entail. Even though the statute may be silent regarding notice and hearing, the court would read into such provision the inherent requirement of notice and hearing before a prejudicial order is passed. We, therefore, hold that before an order is passed under Section 206C of the Income Tax Act, it is incumbent upon the assessing officer to put the person concerned to notice and afford him an adequate and reasonable opportunity of hearing, including a personal hearing.
Thus, the question framed in paragraph 3 above, is answered in the negative by holding that Section 206C of the Income Tax Act is not applicable in respect of Mysore Sales and that the liquor vendors(contractors) who bought the vending rights from the appellant on auction cannot be termed as “buyers” within the meaning of Explanation(a) to Section 206C of the Income Tax Act. We also hold that the High Court was not justified in dismissing the writ petitions and consequently, the writ appeal challenging the orders.