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Memorandum Explaining the Provisions in The Finance Bill, 2015

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..... of tax on 'Salaries' and charging of income-tax on current incomes in certain cases for the financial year 2015-2016. 3. The substance of the main provisions of the Bill relating to direct taxes is explained in the following paragraphs:- DIRECT TAXES A. RATES OF INCOME-TAX I. Rates of income-tax in respect of income liable to tax for the assessment year 2015-2016. In respect of income of all categories of assessees liable to tax for the assessment year 2015-2016, the rates of incometax have been specified in Part I of the First Schedule to the Bill. These are the same as those laid down in Part III of the First Schedule to the Finance (No.2) Act, 2014, for the purposes of computation of "advance tax", deduction of tax at source from "Salaries" and charging of tax payable in certain cases. (1) Surcharge on income-tax- Surcharge shall be levied in respect of income liable to tax for the assessment year 2015-2016, in the following cases:- (a) in the case of every individual or Hindu undivided family or every association of persons or body of individuals, whether incorporated or not, or every artificial juridical person referred to in sub-clause (vii) of clause (31) of section .....

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..... ceeding ten crore rupees, shall not exceed the total amount payable as income-tax and surcharge on a total income of ten crore rupees, by more than the amount of income that exceeds ten crore rupees. Also, in the case of every company having total income chargeable to tax under section 115JB of the Act and where such income exceeds one crore rupees but does not exceed ten crore rupees, or exceeds ten crore rupees, as the case may be, surcharge at the rates mentioned above shall be levied and marginal relief shall also be provided. (d) In other cases (including sections 115-O, 115QA, 115R or 115TA), the surcharge shall be levied at the rate of ten percent. (2) Education Cess - For assessment year 2015-2016, additional surcharge called the "Education Cess on income-tax" and "Secondary and Higher Education Cess on income-tax" shall continue to be levied at the rate of two per cent. and one per cent., respectively, on the amount of tax computed, inclusive of surcharge, in all cases. No marginal relief shall be available in respect of such Cess. II. Rates for deduction of income-tax at source during the financial year 2015-2016 from certain incomes other than "Salaries". The rates .....

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..... ing income-tax during the financial year 2015-2016 on current incomes in cases where accelerated assessments have to be made, for instance, provisional assessment of shipping profits arising in India to non-residents, assessment of persons leaving India for good during the financial year, assessment of persons who are likely to transfer property to avoid tax, assessment of bodies formed for a short duration, etc. The salient features of the rates specified in the said Part III are indicated in the following paragraphs- A. Individual, Hindu undivided family, association of persons, body of individuals, artificial juridical person. Paragraph A of Part-III of First Schedule to the Bill provides following rates of income-tax:- (i) The rates of income-tax in the case of every individual (other than those mentioned in (ii) and (iii) below) or Hindu undivided family or every association of persons or body of individuals, whether incorporated or not, or every artificial juridical person referred to in sub-clause (vii) of clause (31) of section 2 of the Income-tax Act (not being a case to which any other Paragraph of Part III applies) are as under Upto ₹ 2,50,000 Nil. ₹ 2 .....

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..... total amount payable as income-tax and surcharge on total income exceeding one crore rupees shall not exceed the total amount payable as income-tax on a total income of one crore rupees by more than the amount of income that exceeds one crore rupees. D. Local authorities The rate of income-tax in the case of every local authority is specified in Paragraph D of Part III of the First Schedule to the Bill. This rate will continue to be the same as that specified for the financial year 2014-15. The amount of income-tax shall be increased by a surcharge at the rate of twelve percent. of such income-tax in case of a local authority having a total income exceeding one crore rupees. However, the total amount payable as income-tax and surcharge on total income exceeding one crore rupees shall not exceed the total amount payable as income-tax on a total income of one crore rupees by more than the amount of income that exceeds one crore rupees. E. Companies The rates of income-tax in the case of companies are specified in Paragraph E of Part III of the First Schedule to the Bill. These rates are the same as those specified for the financial year 2014-15 . Surcharge at the rate of seven .....

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..... of the Income-tax Act provide that any loan or deposit shall not be repaid, otherwise than by an account payee cheque or account payee bank draft or online transfer through a bank account, by the persons specified in the section if the amount of loan or deposit is twenty thousand rupees or more. In order to curb generation of black money by way of dealings in cash in immovable property transactions it is proposed to amend section 269SS, of the Income-tax Act so as to provide that no person shall accept from any person any loan or deposit or any sum of money, whether as advance or otherwise, in relation to transfer of an immovable property otherwise than by an account payee cheque or account payee bank draft or by electronic clearing system through a bank account, if the amount of such loan or deposit or such specified sum is twenty thousand rupees or more. It is also proposed to amend section 269T of the Income-tax Act so as to provide that no person shall repay any loan or deposit made with it or any specified advance received by it, otherwise than by an account payee cheque or account payee bank draft or by electronic clearing system through a bank account, if the amount or ag .....

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..... e effect from 1st April, 2015. [Clause 25 ] Pass through status to Category -I and Category -II Alternative Investment Funds The existing provisions of section 10(23FB) of the Act provide that any income of a Venture Capital Company (VCC) or a Venture Capital Fund (VCF) from investment in a Venture Capital Undertaking (VCU) shall be exempt from taxation. Section 115U of the Act provides that income accruing or arising or received by a person out of investment made in a VCC or VCF shall be taxable in the same manner, on current year basis, as if the person had made direct investment in the VCU. These sections provide a tax pass through (i.e. income is taxable in the hands of investors instead of VCF/VCC) only to the funds, being set up as a company or a trust, which are registered (i) before 21.05.2012 as a VCF under SEBI (Venture Capital Funds) Regulations, 1996, or (ii) as venture capital fund being one of the sub-categories under category-I Alternative investment fund (AIF) regulated by SEBI (AIF) Regulations, 2012 w.e.f. 21.05.2012. The existing pass through is available only in respect of income which arises to the fund from investment in VCU (Venture Capital Undertaking), .....

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..... exempt. (iv) where any income, other than income which is taxable at investment fund level, is payable to a unit holder by an investment fund, the fund shall deduct income-tax at the rate of ten per cent. (v) the income paid or credited by the investment fund shall be deemed to be of the same nature and in the same proportion in the hands of the unit holder as if it had been received by, or had accrued or arisen to, the investment fund. (vi) if in any year there is a loss at the fund level either current loss or the loss which remained to be set off, the loss shall not be allowed to be passed through to the investors but would be carried over at fund level to be set off against income of the next year in accordance with the provisions of Chapter VI of the Income-tax Act. (vii) the provisions of Chapter XII-D (Dividend Distribution Tax) or Chapter XII-E (Tax on distributed income) shall not apply to the income paid by an investment fund to its unit holders. (viii) the income received by the investment fund would be exempt from TDS requirement. This would be provided by issue of appropriate notification under section 197A(1F) of the Act subsequently. (ix) it shall be mandatory .....

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..... tal income of a unit holder ₹ 30 (Chargeable under the head "Income from other sources") Example 4: If in the previous year immediately succeeding the previous year mentioned in Example 3, the income stream of the investment fund consists of: Business income ₹ 100 Income by way of capital gains ₹ 450 Income from other sources ₹ 500 Then: Total Income of the investment fund ₹ 100 (Business income) Exempt Income - Capital Gain (Rs. 450 - ₹ 300) ₹ 150 Income from other sources ₹ 500 Income accruing or arising to the unit holders ₹ 750 Income of a unit holder including exempt income ₹ 75 Total Income of a unit holder ₹ 65 Break up: Exempt Income ₹ 10 Chargeable under the head "Capital gain" ₹ 15 Chargeable under the head "Income from other sources" ₹ 50 These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2016 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2016-17 and subsequent assessment years. [Clauses 3, 7, 30, 32, 34 & 46] Fund Managers in India not to constitute business connection of offshore funds The existing provisions of section 9 of the Act de .....

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..... to facilitate location of fund managers of off-shore funds in India a specific regime has been proposed in the Act in line with international best practices with the objective that, subject to fulfillment of certain conditions by the fund and the fund manager,- (i) the tax liability in respect of income arising to the Fund from investment in India would be neutral to the fact as to whether the investment is made directly by the fund or through engagement of Fund manager located in India; and (ii) that income of the fund from the investments outside India would not be taxable in India solely on the basis that the Fund management activity in respect of such investments have been undertaken through a fund manager located in India. The proposed regime provides that in the case of an eligible investment fund, the fund management activity carried out through an eligible fund manager acting on behalf of such fund shall not constitute business connection in India of the said fund. Further, it is proposed that an eligible investment fund shall not be said to be resident in India merely because the eligible fund manager undertaking fund management activities on its behalf is located in In .....

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..... not less than the arm's length price of such activity. (2) The following conditions shall be required to be satisfied by the person being the fund manager for being an eligible fund manager: (i) the person is not an employee of the eligible investment fund or a connected person of the fund; (ii) the person is registered as a fund manager or investment advisor in accordance with the specified regulations; (iii) the person is acting in the ordinary course of his business as a fund manager; (iv) the person along with his connected persons shall not be entitled, directly or indirectly, to more than twenty percent of the profits accruing or arising to the eligible investment fund from the transactions carried out by the fund through such fund manager. It is further proposed that every eligible investment fund shall, in respect of its activities in a financial year, furnish within ninety days from the end of the financial year, a statement in the prescribed form to the prescribed income-tax authority containing information relating to the fulfillment of the above conditions or any information or document which may be prescribed. In case of non furnishing of the prescribed informati .....

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..... as under the proposed section 32AD if it fulfills the conditions (such as investment above a specified threshold) specified in the said section 32AC and conditions specified under the proposed section 32AD. The phrase "new asset" has been defined as plant or machinery but does not include- (i) any plant or machinery which before its installation by the assessee was used either within or outside India by any other person; (ii) any plant or machinery installed in any office premises or any residential accommodation, including accommodation in the nature of a guest house; (iii) any office appliances including computers or computer software; (iv) any vehicle; (v) any ship or aircraft; or (vi) any plant or machinery, the whole of the actual cost of which is allowed as deduction (whether by way of depreciation or otherwise) in computing the income chargeable under the head "Profits and gains of business or profession" of any previous year. With a view to ensure that the manufacturing units which are set up by availing this proposed incentive actually contribute to economic growth of these backward areas by carrying out the activity of manufacturing for a substantial period of tim .....

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..... onal depreciation"). These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2016 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2016-17 and subsequent assessment years. [Clauses 10 & 11] Taxation Regime for Real Estate Investment Trusts (REIT) and Infrastructure Investment Trusts (Invit) The Finance (No.2) Act, 2014 had amended the Act to put in place a special taxation regime in respect of business trusts. The business trust as defined in section 2(13A) of the Act includes a Real Estate investment Trust (REIT) or an Infrastructure Investment Trust(InviT) which is registered under regulations framed by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in this regard. The existing tax regime for the business trust and their investors as contained in different sections of the Income-tax Act, inter alia, provides that:- (i) The listed units of a business trust, when traded on a recognised stock exchange, would be liable to securities transaction tax (STT), and the long term capital gains shall be exempt and the short term capital gains shall be taxable at the rate of 15%. (ii) In case of capital gains arising to the sponsor at the time of exchange of shares in Special P .....

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..... rity, it is proposed that,- (i) the sponsor would get the same tax treatment on offloading of units under an Initial offer on listing of units as it would have been available had he offloaded the underlying shareholding through an IPO. (ii) the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2004 be amended to provide that STT shall be levied on sale of such units of business trust which are acquired in lieu of shares of SPV, under an Initial offer at the time of listing of units of business trust on similar lines as in the case of sale of unlisted equity shares under an IPO. (iii) the benefit of concessional tax regime of tax @15 % on STCG and exemption on LTCG under section 10(38) of the Act shall be available to the sponsor on sale of units received in lieu of shares of SPV subject to levy of STT. Further, in case of a business trust, being REITs, the income is predominantly in the nature of rental income. This rental income arises from the assets held directly by REIT or held by it through an SPV. The rental income received at the level of SPV gets passed through by way of interest or dividend to the REIT, the rental income directly received by the REIT is taxable at REIT level and does not get pass .....

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..... ne, 2017. This amendment will take effect from 1st June, 2015. [Clause 47] Reduction in rate of tax on Income by way of Royalty and Fees for technical services in case of non-residents The existing provisions of section 115A of the Act provide that in case of a non-resident taxpayer, where the total income includes any income by way of Royalty and Fees for technical services (FTS) received by such non-resident from Government or an Indian concern after 31.03.1976, and which is not effectively connected with permanent establishment, if any, of the non-resident in India, tax shall be levied at the rate of 25% on the gross amount of such income. This rate of 25% was provided by Finance Act, 2013. In order to reduce the hardship faced by small entities due to high rate of tax of 25%, it is proposed to amend the Act to reduce the rate of tax provided under section 115A on royalty and FTS payments made to non-residents to 10%. This amendment will take effect from 1st April, 2016 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2016-17 and subsequent assessment years. [Clause 27] Deduction for employment of new workmen The existing provisions contained in section 8 .....

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..... period of less than one hundred and eighty days in the previous year. Non-availability of full 100% of additional depreciation for acquisition and installation of new plant or machinery in the second half of the year may motivate the assessee to defer such investment to the next year for availing full 100% of additional depreciation in the next year. To remove the discrimination in the matter of allowing additional depreciation on plant or machinery used for less than 180 days and used for 180 days or more, it is proposed to provide that the balance 50% of the additional depreciation on new plant or machinery acquired and used for less than 180 days which has not been allowed in the year of acquisition and installation of such plant or machinery, shall be allowed in the immediately succeeding previous year. This amendment will take effect from 1st April, 2016 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2016-17 and subsequent assessment years. [Clause 10] D. EASE OF DOING BUSINESS/DISPUTE RESOLUTION Clarity relating to Indirect transfer provisions The existing provisions of section 9 of the Act deal with cases of income which are deemed to accrue or arise i .....

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..... ion shall be the date on which the accounting period of the company or entity, as the case may be, ends preceding the date of transfer. (iv) however, if the book value of the assets of the company on the date of transfer exceeds by at least 15% of the book value of the assets as on the last balance sheet date preceding the date of transfer, then instead of the date mentioned in (iii) above, the date of transfer shall be the specified date of valuation. (v) the manner of determination of fair market value of the Indian assets vis-a vis global assets of the foreign company shall be prescribed in the rules. (vi) the taxation of gains arising on transfer of a share or interest deriving, directly or indirectly, its value substantially from assets located in India will be on proportional basis. The method for determination of proportionality are proposed to be provided in the rules. (vii) the exemption shall be available to the transferor of a share of, or interest in, a foreign entity if he along with its associated enterprises, (a) neither holds the right of control or management, (b) nor holds voting power or share capital or interest exceeding five per cent. of the total voting .....

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..... 14, 72, 75 & 76] Raising the threshold for specified domestic transaction The existing provisions of section 92BA of the Act define "specified domestic transaction" in case of an assessee to mean any of the specified transactions, not being an international transaction, where the aggregate of such transactions entered into by the assessee in the previous year exceeds a sum of five crore rupees. In order to address the issue of compliance cost in case of small businesses on account of low threshold of five crores rupees, it is proposed to amend section 92BA to provide that the aggregate of specified transactions entered into by the assessee in the previous year should exceed a sum of twenty crore rupees for such transaction to be treated as 'specified domestic transaction'. This amendment will take effect from 1st April, 2016 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2016-17 and subsequent assessment years. [Clause 24] Rationalisation of definition of charitable purpose in the Income-tax Act The primary condition for grant of exemption to a trust or institution under section 11 of the Act is that the income derived from property held under trust should .....

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..... (ii) the aggregate receipts from such activity or activities, during the previous year, do not exceed twenty percent. of the total receipts, of the trust or institution undertaking such activity or activities, for the previous year . These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2016 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2016-17 and subsequent assessment years. [Clause 3] Exemption to income of Core Settlement Guarantee Fund (SGF) of the Clearing Corporations Under the provisions of Securities Contracts (Regulation) (Stock Exchanges and Clearing Corporations) Regulations, 2012 (SECC) notified by SEBI, the Clearing Corporations are mandated to establish a fund, called Core Settlement Guarantee Fund (Core SGF) for each segment of each recognized stock exchange to guarantee the settlement of trades executed in respective segments of the exchange. Under the existing provisions, income by way of contributions to the Investor Protection Fund set up by recognised stock exchanges in India, or by commodity exchanges in India or by a depository shall be exempt from taxation. On similar lines, it is proposed to exempt the income of the Core SGF arising fro .....

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..... tion or merger of mutual fund schemes provided that the consolidation is of two or more schemes of an equity oriented fund or two or more schemes of a fund other than equity oriented fund. It is further proposed that the cost of acquisition of the units of consolidated scheme shall be the cost of units in the consolidating scheme and period of holding of the units of the consolidated scheme shall include the period for which the units in consolidating schemes were held by the assessee. It is also proposed to define consolidating scheme as the scheme of a mutual fund which merges under the process of consolidation of the schemes of mutual fund in accordance with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996 and consolidated scheme as the scheme with which the consolidating scheme merges or which is formed as a result of such merger. These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2016 and will accordingly apply, in relation to the assessment year 2016-17 and subsequent assessment years. [Clauses 13 & 14] Procedure for appeal by revenue when an identical question of law is pending before Supreme Court Section 158A of the Income-tax Act provides tha .....

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..... he Commissioner or Principal Commissioner shall proceed under sub-section (1) only if an acceptance is received from the assessee to the effect that the question of law in the other case is identical to that arising in the relevant case. However, in case no such acceptance is received the Commissioner or Principal Commissioner shall proceed in accordance with the provisions contained in section (2) or section (2A) of section 253 and accordingly may, if he objects to the order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals), direct the Assessing Officer to appeal to the Appellate Tribunal. It is also proposed to provide that where the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) is not in conformity with the final decision on the question of law in the other case (if the Supreme Court decides the earlier case in favour of the Department), the Commissioner or Principal Commissioner may direct the Assessing Officer to appeal to the Appellate Tribunal against such order within sixty days from the date on which the order of the Supreme Court is communicated to the Commissioner or Principal Commissioner and save as otherwise provided in the said section 158AA, all other provisions of Part B of Chapter XX s .....

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..... ₹ 30 lakh on the valuation date, i.e. last date of the previous year. For the purpose of computation of taxable net wealth, only few specified assets are taken into account. The actual collection from the levy of wealth-tax during the financial year 2011-12 was ₹ 788.67 crore and during the financial year 2012-13 was ₹ 844.12 crore only. The number of wealth-tax assessee was around 1.15 lakh in 2011-12. Although only a nominal amount of revenue is collected from the levy of wealth-tax, this levy creates a significant amount of compliance burden on the assessees as well as administrative burden on the department. This is because the assessees are required to value the assets as per the provisions of Wealth-tax Rules for computation of net wealth and for certain assets like jewellery, they are required to obtain valuation report from the registered valuer. Further, the assets which are specified for levy of wealth-tax, being unproductive, such as jewellery, luxury cars, etc. are difficult to be tracked and this gives an opportunity to the assessees to under report/under value the assets which are liable for wealth-tax. Due to this, the collection of wealth-tax ove .....

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..... 80C to the parent or legal guardian of the girl child, amendment of section 80C of the Act is proposed to be made so as to provide that a sum paid or deposited during the year in the Scheme in the name of any girl child of the individual or in the name of any girl child for whom such individual is the legal guardian, would be eligible for deduction under section 80C of the Act. These amendments will take effect retrospectively from 1st April, 2015 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to assessment year 2015-16 and subsequent assessment years. [Clauses 7 & 15] Amendment in section 80D relating to deduction in respect of health insurance premia The existing provisions contained in section 80D, inter alia, provide for deduction of a) upto fifteen thousand rupees to an assessee, being an individual in respect of health insurance premia, paid by any mode, other than cash, to effect or to keep in force an insurance on the health of the assessee or his family or any contribution made to the Central Government Health Scheme or any other notified scheme or any payment made on account of preventive health check up of the assessee or his family; and b) an additional deduction of fif .....

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..... revious year. These amendments will take effect from the 1st April, 2016 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2016-17 and subsequent assessment years. [Clause 18] Raising the limit of deduction under section 80DDB Under the existing provisions of section 80DDB of the Act, an assessee, resident in India is allowed a deduction of a sum not exceeding forty thousand rupees, being the amount actually paid, for the medical treatment of certain chronic and protracted diseases such as Cancer, full blown AIDS, Thalassaemia, Haemophilia etc. This deduction is allowed up to sixty thousand rupees where the expenditure is in respect of a senior citizen i.e. a person who is of the age of sixty years or more at any time during the relevant previous year. The above deduction is available to an individual for medical expenditure incurred on himself or a dependant relative. It is also available to a Hindu undivided family (HUF) for such expenditure incurred on its members. Dependant in case of an individual means the spouse, children, parents, brother or sister of an individual and in case of an HUF means a member of the HUF ,wholly or mainly dependant on such individ .....

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..... year, is certified by the medical authority to be a person with disability (as defined under the said section). The said section provides for a deduction of fifty thousand rupees if the person is suffering from disability and one lakh rupees if the person is suffering from severe disability (as defined under the said section). The limits under section 80DD and section 80U in respect of a person with disability were fixed at fifty thousand rupees by Finance Act, 2003. Further, the limit under section 80DD and section 80U in respect of a person with severe disability was last enhanced from seventy five thousand rupees to one lakh rupees by Finance (No.2) Act, 2009. In view of the rising cost of medical care and special needs of a disabled person, it is proposed to amend section 80DD and section 80U so as to raise the limit of deduction in respect of a person with disability from fifty thousand rupees to seventy five thousand rupees. It is further proposed to amend the section so as to raise the limit of deduction in respect of a person with severe disability from one lakh rupees to one hundred and twenty five thousand rupees. These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 201 .....

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..... to insert a new sub-section (1B) so as to provide for an additional deduction in respect of any amount paid, of upto fifty thousand rupees for contributions made by any individual assessees under the NPS. Consequential amendments are also proposed in sub-section (3) and sub-section (4) of section 80CCD. These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2016 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2016-17 and subsequent assessment years. [Clause 17] Enabling of filing of Form 15G/15H for payment made under life insurance policy The Finance (No.2) Act, 2014, inserted section 194DA in the Act with effect from 1.10.2014 to provide for deduction of tax at source at the rate of 2% from payments made under life insurance policy, which are chargeable to tax. It has been further provided that no deduction shall be made if the aggregate amount of payment during a financial year is less than ₹ 1,00,000. In spite of providing high threshold for deduction of tax under this section, there may be cases where the tax payable on recipient's total income, including the payment made under life insurance, will be nil. The existing provisions of section 197A of the A .....

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..... tion 80G, an assessee is allowed a deduction from his total income in respect of donations made by him to certain funds and charitable institutions. The deduction is allowed at the rate of hundred percent of the amount of donations made to certain funds and institutions formed for a social purpose of national importance, like the Prime Ministers' National Relief Fund, National Foundation for Communal Harmony etc. The National Fund for Control of Drug Abuse is a fund created by the Government of India in the year 1989, under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985. Since National Fund for Control of Drug Abuse is also a Fund of national importance, it is proposed amend section 80G so as to provide hundred percent. deduction in respect of donations made to the said National Fund for Control of Drug Abuse. This amendment will take effect from 1st April, 2016 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2016-17 and subsequent assessment years. [Clause 21] F. SWACHCHH BHARAT Tax benefits for Swachh Bharat Kosh and Clean Ganga Fund Under the existing provisions of section 80G of the Income-tax Act, a deduction is allowed in computing the total in .....

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..... es 7 & 21] G. RATIONALISATION MEASURES Clarity regarding source rule in respect of interest received by the non-resident in certain cases The provisions of section 5 of the Act provide for scope of total income for the purposes of its chargeability to tax. In case of a non-resident person, the chargeability of income in India is on the basis of source rule under which certain categories of income are deemed to accrue or arise in India. The existing provisions of section 9 provide for the circumstances under which income is deemed to accrue or arise in India. Section 9(1) (v) relates specifically to the interest income. The said clause provides that the income by way of interest is deemed to accrue or arise in India if it is payable by- (a) the Government ; or (b) a person who is a resident, except where the interest is payable in respect of any debt incurred, or moneys borrowed and used, for the purposes of a business or profession carried on by such person outside India or for the purposes of making or earning any income from any source outside India ; or (c) a person who is a non-resident, where the interest is payable in respect of any debt incurred, or moneys borrowed and .....

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..... n-deductible under domestic law being payment to the self, however, such interest is deductible due to computation mechanism provided under the DTAA but it is not taxable in the hands of the Bank being income generated from self. The view expressed in the CBDT circular has not found favour in these judicial decisions. If the legal fiction created under the treaty is treated to be of limited effect, it would lead to base erosion. The interest paid by the permanent establishment to the head office or other branch etc. is an interest payment sourced in India and is liable to be taxed under the source rule in India. This position is also recognised in some of our DTAAs in particular the Indo-USA DTAA in Article 14 (3) reads as under:- "In the case of a banking company which is resident of the United States, the interest paid by the permanent establishment of such a company in India to the head office may be subject in India to tax in addition to the tax imposable under the other provisions of this Convention at a rate which shall not exceed the rate specified in paragraph 2(a) of Article 11 (Interest)" The Special Bench of the ITAT in the case of Sumitomo Mitsui Banking Corporation [ .....

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..... rious conditions provided in the section. While 15% of the income can be accumulated indefinitely by the trust or institution, 85% of income can only be accumulated for a period not exceeding 5 years subject to the conditions that such person submits the prescribed Form 10 to the assessing Officer in this regard and the money so accumulated or set apart is invested or deposited in the specified forms or modes. If the accumulated income is not applied in accordance with these conditions, then such income is deemed to be taxable income of the trust or institution. In order to remove the ambiguity regarding the period within which the assessee is required to file Form 10, and to ensure due compliance of the above conditions within time, it is proposed to amend the Act to provide that the said Form shall be filed before the due date of filing return of income specified under section 139 of the Act for the fund or institution. In case the Form 10 is not submitted before this date, then the benefit of accumulation would not be available and such income would be taxable at the applicable rate. Further, the benefit of accumulation would also not be available if return of income is not fur .....

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..... bsequent assessment years. [Clause 4] Rationalising the provisions of section 115JB The existing provisions contained in section 115JB of the Act provide that in the case of a company, if the tax payable on the total income as computed under the Act in respect of any previous year relevant to the assessment year commencing on or after the 1st day of April, 2012, is less than eighteen and one-half percent of its book profit, such book profit shall be deemed to be the total income of the assessee and the tax payable for the relevant previous year shall be eighteen and one-half percent of its book profit. This tax is termed as minimum alternate tax (MAT). Explanation below sub-section (2) of section 115JB provides that the expression "book profit" means net profit as shown in the profit and loss account prepared in accordance with the provisions of the Companies Act, or in accordance with the provisions of the Act governing a company as increased or reduced by certain adjustments, as specified in the section. Section 86 of the Act provides that no income-tax is payable on the share of a member of an AOP, in the income of the AOP in certain circumstances. However, under the present .....

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..... from the book profit for the purposes of calculation of income-tax payable under the section. Further by inserting a new clause (fa) in Explanation 1 it is proposed that the book profit shall be increased by the amount or amounts of expenditure relatable to the above income. A new clause (iic) is also proposed to be inserted in Explanation 1 so as to provide that the amount of income from transactions in securities, (other than short term capital gains arising on transactions on which securities transaction tax is not chargeable), accruing or arising to an assessee being a Foreign Institutional Investor which has invested in such securities in accordance with the regulations made under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act,1992,if any such amount is credited to the profit and loss account, shall be reduced from the book profit for the purposes of calculation of income-tax payable under the section. Further by inserting a new clause (fb) in Explanation 1, it is proposed that the book profit shall be increased by the amount or amounts of expenditure relatable to the above income. These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2016 and will, accordingly, apply in relatio .....

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..... under section 148 of the Act. It has been observed that issue relating to escapement of income is often involved in more than one assessment year. In such case the assessee becomes eligible to approach Settlement Commission only for the assessment year for which notice under section 148 has been issued. Therefore, to take the proceeding for all other assessment years where there is escapement, the assessee becomes eligible only after notice under section 148 has been issued for all such assessment years. In order to obviate the need for issue of notice in all such assessment years for commencement of pendency, it is proposed to amend clause (i) of the said Explanation to provide that where a notice under section 148 is issued for any assessment year, the assessee can approach Settlement Commission for other assessment years as well even if notice under section 148 for such other assessment years has not been issued. However, a return of income for such other assessment years should have been furnished under section 139 of the Act or in response to notice under section 142 of the Act. The existing provision contained in clause (iv) of the Explanation provides that a proceeding fo .....

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..... y is provided from prosecution by the Settlement Commission, it is proposed to amend sub-section (1) of section 245H of the Income-tax Act so as to provide that the Settlement Commission while granting immunity to any person shall record the reasons in writing in the order passed by it. The existing provision contained in sub-section (1) of section 245HA of the Income-tax Act provides for abatement of proceedings in different situations. It is proposed to amend sub-section (1) of section 245HA of the Income-tax Act to provide that where in respect of any application made under section 245C, an order under sub-section (4) of section 245D has been passed without providing the terms of settlement the proceedings before the Settlement Commission shall abate on the day on which such order under sub-section (4) of section 245D was passed. The existing provision contained in section 245K of the Income-tax Act, provides that where an application of a person has been allowed to be proceeded with under sub-section (1) of section 245D, then such person shall not be subsequently entitled to make an application before Settlement Commission. It further provides that in certain situations the .....

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..... , 58, 59, 60 & 61] Orders passed by the prescribed authority under section sub-clauses (vi) and (via) of clause (23C) of section 10 made appealable before Income-tax Appellate Tribunal Sub-clause (vi) of clause (23C) of section 10 provides that any income received by a person on behalf of any university or other educational institution existing solely for educational purposes and not for purpose of profit and which may be approved by the prescribed authority is not liable to tax. Similarly, sub-clause (via) of clause (23C) of section 10 provides that any income received by a person on behalf of any hospital or other institution for treatment of persons suffering from illness or mental defectiveness or treatment of persons during convalescence or persons requiring medical attention, existing solely for philanthropic purposes and not for the purpose of profit is not liable for tax if such hospital or institution is approved by the prescribed authority. The existing provisions contained in sub-section (1) of section 253 of the Income-tax specify orders that are appealable before ITAT. Order passed by the prescribed authority under sub-clauses (vi) and (via) of clause (23C) of secti .....

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..... r than the person referred to in section 153A, then the books of account or documents or assets seized or requisitioned shall be handed over to the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over such other person and that Assessing Officer shall proceed against each such other person and issue such other person notice and assess or reassess income of such other person in accordance with the provisions of section 153A. This amendment will take effect from the 1st day of June, 2015. [Clause 36] Simplification of approval regime for issue of notice for re-assessment Section 151 of the Act provides for sanction from certain authorities before issue of notice for reassessment of income under section 148. Under certain specified circumstances, the Assessing Officer is required to obtain sanction before issue of notice under section 148. Section 151 specifies different sanctioning authorities based on- (i) whether scrutiny under sub-section (3) of section 143 or section 147 has been made earlier or not, (ii) whether notice is proposed to be issued within or after four years from the end of relevant assessment year, and (iii) the rank of the Assessing Officer proposing to issue notice. To .....

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..... that additional amount. Accordingly, it is proposed to insert a new subsection (2A) so as to provide that where an application under sub-section (1) of section 245C for any assessment year has been made, the assessee shall be liable to pay simple interest at the rate of one per cent for every month or part of a month comprised in the period commencing on the 1st day of April of such assessment year and ending on the date of making such application, on the additional amount of income-tax referred to in that sub-section. Further, where as a result of an order of the Settlement Commission under sub-section (4) of section 245D for any assessment year, the amount of total income disclosed in the application under sub-section (1) of section 245C is increased, the assessee shall be liable to pay simple interest at the rate of one per cent for every month or part of a month comprised in the period commencing on the 1st day of April of such assessment year and ending on the date of such order, on the amount by which the tax on the total income determined on the basis of such order exceeds the tax on the total income disclosed in the application filed under sub-section (1) of section 245C. .....

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..... 0.2009, which inter alia provided for non- deduction of tax from payments made to the contractor during the course of plying, hiring and leasing goods carriage if the contractor furnishes his Permanent Account Number (PAN) to the payer. The memorandum explaining the provisions of Finance (No.2) Bill, 2009 indicates that the intention was to exempt only small transport operators (as defined in section 44AE of the Act) from the purview of TDS on furnishing of Permanent Account Number (PAN). Thus, the intention was to reduce the compliance burden on the small transporters. However, the current language of sub-section (6) of section 194C of the Act does not convey the desired intention and as a result all transporters, irrespective of their size, are claiming exemption from TDS under the existing provisions of sub-section (6) of section 194C of the Act on furnishing of PAN. As there is no rationale for exempting payment to all transporters, irrespective of their size, from the purview of TDS, it is proposed to amend the provisions of section 194C of the Act to expressly provide that the relaxation under sub-section (6 ) of section 194C of the Act from non-deduction of tax shall only .....

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..... as to whether the co-operative banks, for which the specific provisions of tax deduction exist in the form of section 194A (1), section 194A(3)(i)(b) and section 194A(3)(viia)(b) of the Act, can take the benefit of general exemption provided to all co-operative societies from deduction of tax on payment of interest to members. The matter has been carried to judicial forums and in some cases a view has been taken that the provisions of section 194A(3)(viia)(b) of the Act makes no distinction between members and non-members of co-operative banks for the purposes of deduction of tax, hence, the co-operative banks are required to deduct tax on payment of interest on time deposit and cannot avoid the same by taking the plea of the general exemption provided under section 194A(3)(v) of the Act. This is because the specific provision of tax deduction provided under section 194A(3)(i)(b) and 194A(3)(viia)(b) of the Act for co-operative banks override the general exemption provided to all co-operative societies for non-deduction of tax from interest payment to members under section 194A(3)(v) of the Act. As there is no difference in the functioning of the co-operative banks and other comm .....

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..... ng deposit from its scope. Therefore, payment of interest on recurring deposits by banking company or co-operative bank is currently not subject to TDS. The recurring deposit is also made for a fixed tenure and, therefore, the same is akin to time deposit. It is, therefore, proposed to amend the definition of 'time deposits' so as to include recurring deposits within its scope for the purposes of deduction of tax under section 194A of the Act. However, the existing threshold limit of ₹ 10,000 for non-deduction of tax shall also be applicable in case of interest payment on recurring deposits to safeguard interests of small depositors. Currently, provisions of proviso to section 194A(3)(i) of the Act provide that the interest income for the purpose of deduction of tax by the banking company or the co-operative bank or the public company shall be computed with reference to a branch of these entities. As currently, most of these entities are computerised and follow core banking solutions for crediting interest, there is no rationale for continuing branch wise calculation of interest by the entities who have adopted core banking solutions. It is, therefore, proposed to amend the .....

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..... person is required to collect tax on certain specified receipts at the specified rates. The person collecting tax ('the collector') also is required to file a quarterly Tax Collection at Source (TCS) statement containing the details of collection of tax made during the quarter by the prescribed due date. In order to provide effective deterrence against delay in furnishing of TDS/TCS statement, the Finance Act, 2012 inserted section 234E in the Act to provide for levy of fee for late furnishing of TDS/TCS statement. The levy of fee under section 234E of the Act has proved to be an effective tool in improving the compliance in respect of timely submission of TDS/TCS statement by the deductor or collector. Finance (No.2) Act, 2009 inserted section 200A in the Act which provides for processing of TDS statements for determining the amount payable or refundable to the deductor. However, as section 243E was inserted after the insertion of section 200A in the Act, the existing provisions of section 200A of the Act does not provide for determination of fee payable under section 234E of the Act at the time of processing of TDS statements. It is, therefore, proposed to amend the provisions .....

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..... contains provisions for levy of interest for non-payment of tax specified in the intimation to be issued. To remove the possibility of charging interest on the same amount for the same period of default both under section 206C (7) and section 220(2) of the Act, it is proposed to provide that where interest is charged for any period under section 206C (7) of the Act on the tax amount specified in the intimation issued under proposed provision, then, no interest shall be charged under section 220(2) of the Act on the same amount for the same period. Under the existing scheme of payment of TDS and TCS, Government deductors/collectors are allowed to make payment of tax deducted/collected by them without production of challan i.e. through book entry. For payment of tax deducted/collected through book entry, the Drawing and Disbursing Officer (DDO) intimates the TDS/TCS amount to the Pay and Accounts Officer or the Treasury Officer or the Cheque Drawing and Disbursing Officer (PAO/TO/CDDO) who credits the TDS/TCS amount to the credit of Central Government through book entry. For generating credit for TDS/TCS paid through book entry by the Government deductors, a system of capturing inf .....

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..... idence of interest payments for claiming loss from self occupied house property etc. is generally not available with the DDO. In these circumstances, the DDO has to depend upon the evidence/particulars furnished, if any, by the employees in support of their claim of deductions, exemptions, etc. As the existing provisions of the Act do not contain any guidance regarding nature of evidence/documents to be obtained by the DDO, there is no uniformity in the approach of the DDO in this matter. In order to bring clarity in this matter, it is proposed to amend the provisions of section 192 of the Act to provide that the person responsible for paying, for the purposes of estimating income of the assessee or computing tax deductible under section 192(1) of the Act, shall obtain from the assessee evidence or proof or particulars of the prescribed claim (including claim for set-off of loss) under the provisions of the Act in the prescribed form and manner. The existing provisions of sub-section (6) of section 195 of the Act provide that the person referred to in section 195(1) of the Act shall furnish prescribed information. Section 195(1) of the Act provides that any person responsible for .....

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..... me, 1952 (EPFS). However, these employers are also permitted to establish and manage their own private provident fund (PF) scheme subject to fulfillment of certain conditions. The provident funds established under a scheme framed under EPF & MP Act, 1952 or Provident Fund exempted under section 17 of the said Act and recognised under the Income-tax Act are termed as Recognised Provident fund (RPF) under the Act. The provisions relating to RPF are contained in Part A of the Fourth Schedule (Schedule IV-A) of the Act. Under the existing provisions of rule 8 of Schedule IV-A of the Act, the withdrawal of accumulated balance by an employee from the RPF is exempt from taxation. However, in order to discourage pre-mature withdrawal and to promote long term savings, it has been provided that such withdrawal shall be taxable if the employee makes withdrawal before continuous service of five years (other than the cases of termination due to ill health, closure of business, etc.) and does not opt for transfer of accumulated balance to new employer. Rule 9 of the said Schedule further provides computation mechanism for determining tax liability of the employee in respect of such pre-mature wi .....

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..... enior citizen employees receiving pre-mature withdrawal. However, some employees making pre-mature withdrawal may be paying tax at higher slab rates (20% or 30%). Therefore, the shortfall in the actual tax liability vis-à-vis TDS is required to be paid by these employees either by requesting their new employer to deduct balance tax or through payment of advance tax / self-assessment tax. For ensuring the payment of balance tax by these employees, furnishing of valid Permanent Account Number (PAN) by them to the EPFS is a prerequisite. The existing provisions of section 206AA of the Act provide for deduction of tax @ 20% in case of non-furnishing of PAN where the rate of deduction of tax at source is specified. As mentioned earlier, there may be employees who are liable to pay tax at the highest slab rate. In order to ensure the collection of balance tax by these employees, it is also proposed that non-furnishing of PAN to the EPFS for receiving these payments would attract deduction of tax at the maximum marginal rate. These amendments will take effect from 1st June, 2015. [Clauses 41 & 49] Amendment to the conditions for determining residency status in respect of Compan .....

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..... ) its place of effective management, at any time in that year, is in India . Further, it is proposed to define the place of effective management to mean a place where key management and commercial decisions that are necessary for the conduct of the business of an entity as a whole are, in substance made. Since POEM is an internationally well accepted concept, there are well recognised guiding principles for determination of POEM although it is a fact dependent exercise. However, it is proposed that in due course, a set of guiding principles to be followed in determination of POEM would be issued for the benefit of the taxpayers as well as, tax administration. These amendments will take effect from 1st April, 2016 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2016-17 and subsequent assessment years. [Clause 4] Prescribed conditions relating to maintenance of accounts, audit etc to be fulfilled by the approved in-house R&D facility Under section 35(2AB) of the Act, weighted deduction of 200% is allowed to a company engaged in the business of biotechnology or manufacturing of goods (except items specified in Schedule-XI) for the expenditure (not being expendit .....

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..... accountant' as a chartered accountant within the meaning of Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 (including a person eligible to be appointed as auditor under section 226(2) of the Companies Act, 1956, of the companies registered under any State). The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (C&AG) published its report on "Appreciation of Third Party (Chartered Accountant) Certification in Assessment Proceedings" (No.32 of 2014). In para 3.9 of the Report, it has been stated that the Chartered Accountant Act, 1949 debars an auditor to express his opinion on the financial statement of any business or any enterprise in which he, his relative, his firm or partner in the firm, has substantial interest. However, during the course of audit, it has been noticed that an auditor has furnished his report in Form 56F in respect of a closely held company in which the auditor's brother was the managing director. To ensure the independence of auditor, sub-section (3) of section 141 of the Companies Act, 2013 contains a list of certain persons who are not eligible for appointment as auditor. The audit/certification function under the Income-tax Act is mainly provided for protecting the interests of .....

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..... ns of section 115JB or 115JC of the Act (hereafter referred as general provisions). Further, courts have held that penalty under section clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 271 cannot be levied in cases where the concealment of income occurs under the income computed under general provisions and the tax is paid under the provisions of section 115JB or 115JC of the Act. Tax paid under the provisions of section 115JB or 115JC over and above the tax liability arising under general provisions is available as credit for set off against future tax liability. Understatement of income and the tax liability thereon under general provisions results in larger amount of such credit becoming available to the assessee for set off in future years. Therefore, where concealment of income, as computed under the general provisions, has taken place, penalty under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 271 should be leviable even if the tax liability of the assessee for the year has been determined under provisions of section 115JB or 115JC of the Act. Accordingly, it is proposed to amend section 271 of the Act so as to provide that the amount of tax sought to be evaded shall be the summation .....

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..... 3 of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975. (c) "SAD" means the Special Additional Duty of Customs levied under sub-section (5) of section 3 of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975. (d) "Export duty" means duty of Customs leviable on goods specified in the Second Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975. (e) Clause nos. in square brackets [ ] indicate the relevant clause of the Finance Bill, 2014. Amendments carried out through the Finance Bill, 2015 come into effect on the date of its enactment unless otherwise specified. AMENDMENTS IN THE CUSTOMS ACT, 1962: 1) Section 28 is being amended so as to: (i) Insert a proviso in sub-section (2) thereof to provide that in cases not involving fraud or collusion or wilful mis-statement or suppression of facts or contravention of any provision of the Act or rules with the intent to evade payment of duty, no penalty shall be imposed if the amount of duty along with interest leviable under section 28AA or the amount of interest, as the case may be, as specified in the notice, is paid in full within 30 days from the date of receipt of the notice and the proceedings in respect of such person or other persons to whom the notice is served shall be deemed to .....

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..... ibited goods, does or omits to do any act which act or omission would render such goods liable to confiscation under section 113, or abets the doing or omission of such an act, shall, subject to the provisions of section 114A, be liable to a penalty not exceeding 10% of the duty sought to be evaded of ₹ 5000, whichever is greater. It is also being provided that in cases of short levy or non-levy or short payment or non-payment and erroneous refund of duty for reasons of collusion or any willful mis-statement or suppression of facts, if the duty as determined under sub-section (8) of section 28 and the interest payable thereon under section 28AA is paid within 30 days from the date of communication of the order of the proper officer determining such duty, the amount of penalty liable to paid by such person under this section shall be 25% of the penalty so determined. [Clause 82] 4) The proviso to clause (b) of section 127A relating to the provisions of Settlement Commission is being amended to delete the reference to "in appeal or revision, as the case may be" so as to provide that when any proceeding is referred back, whether in appeal or revision or otherwise, by any court, .....

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..... ince all the applications filed by 31st day of May, 2007 have necessary been disposed of by 29th day of February 2008, the said explanation has become redundant. Hence, the said Explanation is being omitted. [Clause 87] 9) Section 127L provides the situations in which the person in whose case the order has been passed by the Settlement Commission cannot again approach the Settlement Commission. When the said section was amended in 2007, the said section made distinction in respect of the orders passed prior the commencement of section 102 of the Finance Act, 2007 and after that. In respect of the cases decided after the said commencement, the applicant was barred from making subsequent applications, whereas in the cases decided prior to that he could have made the application if his case was not covered by any of the clauses mentioned in sub-section (1). However, vide the amendments made by the Finance Act, 2010, even in cases decided after commencement of section 102 of the Finance Act, 2007 the applicant was allowed to approach Settlement Commission if not hit by any of the clauses to sub-section (1). Thus, clause (i) and (ii) of sub-section (1) to section 127L are being amended .....

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..... ed rates of Additional Duty of Customs levied on imported Motor Spirit [Petrol] and High Speed Diesel Oil [commonly known as Road Cess] are being increased from ₹ 2 per litre to ₹ 8 per litre. The effective rates of Additional Duty of Customs levied on imported Motor Spirit [Petrol] and High Speed Diesel Oil [commonly known as Road Cess] are being increased from ₹ 2 per litre to ₹ 6 per litre only. IV. ORES and METALS: 1) Export duty on upgraded ilmenite is being reduced from 5% to 2.5%. 2) Basic Customs Duty on metallurgical coke is being increased from 2.5% to 5%. 3) SAD on melting scrap of iron & steel including stainless steel scrap for melting, copper scrap, brass scrap and aluminium scrap is being reduced from 4% to 2%. 4) The tariff rate of basic customs duty on goods falling under all the tariff items of Chapters 72 and 73 that is iron and steel and articles of iron or steel, is being increased from 10% to 15%. However, there is no change in the existing effective rates of basic customs duty on these goods. V. ELECTRONICS/HARDWARE: 1. All goods except populated printed circuit boards, falling under any Chapter of Customs Tariff, for use in the .....

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..... n the manufacture of LCD/LED TV panels is being reduced from 10% to Nil, subject to actual user condition. 13. Basic Customs Duty on Organic LED (OLED) TV panels is being reduced from 10% to Nil. 14. CVD and SAD are being fully exempted on specified raw materials [battery, titanium, palladium wire, eutectic wire, silicone resins and rubbers, solder paste, reed switch, diodes, transistors, capacitors, controllers, coils (steel), tubing (silicone)] for use in the manufacture of pacemakers, subject to actual user condition. 15. SAD on inputs for use in the manufacture of LED drivers and MCPCB for LED lights, fixtures and lamps is being fully exempted, subject to actual user condition. 16. Basic Customs Duty on Digital Still Image Video Camera capable of recording video with minimum resolution of 800x600 pixels, at minimum 23 frames per second, for at least 30 minutes in a single sequence, using the maximum storage (including the expanded) capacity and parts and components for use in the manufacture of such cameras is being reduced to Nil. VI. RENEWABLEENERGY: 1) Basic Customs Duty is being fully exempted on Evacuated Tubes with three layers of solar selective coating for use in .....

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..... posit receipt for a term of 36 months or more. This condition is being amended to prescribe furnishing of bank guarantee or fixed deposit receipt for a period of 66 months. This condition is also applicable to imports under S. No. 508 of Notification No. 12/2012-Customs dated 17-3-2012 . 3) Bulk drugs used in the manufacture of the specified drugs (listed in the table annexed to the exemption notification) are either exempt from BCD or attract concessional rate of 5% BCD, under Sl. No. 148(B) and 147(B) respectively of notification No 12/2012-Customs, if the procedure as laid down in the Customs (Import of Goods at Concessional Rate of Duty for Manufacture of Excisable Goods) Rules, 1996 is followed by the importers. Further, these bulk drugs used in the manufacture of the specified drugs are also exempt from excise duty, under S. No. 108 (B) of the notification 12/2012- CE, provided the procedure laid down in the Central Excise (Removal of Goods at Concessional Rate of Duty for Manufacture of Excisable Goods) Rules, is followed. In this context, clarification has been sought whether a separate certificate issued under the above mentioned Central Excise Rules is required when a si .....

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..... the due date and where only interest is required to be recovered. (iii) Provide that the provisions of section 11A shall not apply to cases where the non-payment or short payment of duty is reflected in the periodic returns filed and that in such cases recovery of duty shall be made in such manner as may be prescribed in the rules. [Clause 91] 3) Section 11AC is being substituted so as to rationalize the penalty as follows: (iv) in cases not involving fraud or collusion or wilful mis-statement or suppression of facts or contravention of any provision of the Act or rules with the intent to evade payment of excise duty, in the following manner,- a) in addition to the duty as determined under sub-section (10) of section 11A, a penalty not exceeding 10% of the duty so determined or ₹ 5000 whichever is higher shall be payable; b) if duty and interest payable thereon under section 11AA is paid either before issue of show cause notice or within 30 days of issue of show cause notice, no penalty shall be payable and all proceedings in respect of said duty and interest shall be deemed to be concluded; c) if duty as determined under sub-section (10) of section 11A and interest pa .....

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..... elating to the provisions of Settlement Commission is being amended to delete the reference to "in appeal or revision, as the case may be" so as to provide that when any proceeding is referred back, whether in appeal or revision or otherwise, by any court, Appellate Tribunal Authority or any other authority to the adjudicating authority for a fresh adjudication or decision, then such case shall not be entitled for settlement. [Clause 93] 5) The proviso to sub-section (3) of section 32 provides that where a Member of the Central Board of Excise & Customs is appointed as the Chairman, Vice Chairman or Member of the Settlement Commission, he shall cease to be a member of the Board. As per the amended Customs and Central Excise Settlement Commission (Recruitment and Conditions of Service of Chairman, Vice Chairman and Members) Rules, 2000, Members of the Board are not eligible to be Member of the Settlement Commission. Hence, the proviso is redundant and is being omitted. [Clause 94] 6) Section 32B is being amended so as to enable Vice Chairman or Member of the Settlement Commission to officiate as Chairman in the absence of the Chairman of the Settlement Commission. [Clause 95] 7) .....

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..... redundant and hence, is being omitted. [Clause 99] 11) Section 32O provides the situations in which the person in whose case the order has been passed by the Settlement Commission cannot again approach the Settlement Commission. When the said section was amended in 2007, the said section made distinction in respect of the orders passed prior the commencement of section 122 of the Finance Act, 2007 and after that. In respect of the cases decided after the said commencement, the applicant was barred from making subsequent applications, whereas in the cases decided prior to that he could have made the application if his case was not covered by any of the clauses mentioned in sub-section (1). However vide the amendments made by the Finance Act, 2010, even in cases decided after commencement of section 122 of the Finance Act, 2007 the applicant was allowed to approach Settlement Commission if not hit by any of the clauses to sub-section (1). Thus, clauses (i) and (ii) of sub-section (1) of section 32O are being amended so as to omit the phrase "passed under sub-section (7) of the section 32F, as it stood immediately before the commencement of section 122 of the Finance Act, 2007 (22 o .....

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..... 23 29 90 is being increased from 12% to 18%. [Clause 104] The changes at 1) to 7) will come into effect immediately owing to a declaration under the Provisional Collection of Taxes Act, 1931. I. PETROLEUM 1. The Schedule Rates of the Additional Duty of Excise (commonly known as Road Cess) levied on Petrol and High Speed Diesel Oil is being increased from ₹ 2 per litre to ₹ 8 per litre. The effective rates of the Additional Duty of Excise (commonly known as Road Cess) levied on Petrol and High Speed Diesel Oil is being increased from ₹ 2 per litre to ₹ 6 per litre only. [Clause 163 and 164] 2. Education Cess and Secondary and Higher Education Cess, presently applicable to petroleum products, including petrol and High Speed Diesel, are being exempted. 3. Rates of duty of excise (CENVAT) on Petrol and High Speed Diesel Oil (both branded and unbranded) are also being revised. 4. Tables below summarizes the changes in various duties applicable to petrol and diesel: Duty rates applicable prior upto 28.02.02105 Duty rates applicable with effect from 01.03.2015 CENVAT Rs. / Litre SAED Rs. / Litre AED Rs. / Litre Education Cesses (as % of aggreg .....

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..... month are being notified with reference to the speed range in which the maximum speed of a packing machine falls. V. ELECTRONICS/HARDWARE: 1) Excise duty on wafers for manufacture of integrated circuit (IC) modules for smart cards is being reduced from 12% to 6%, subject to actual user condition. 2) Excise duty on inputs for use in the manufacture of LED drivers and MCPCB for LED lights, fixtures and lamps, is being reduced from 12% to 6%, subject to actual user condition. 3) Excise duty structure for mobiles phones is being changed from 1% without CENVAT credit or 6% with credit to 1% without credit or 12.5% with credit. NCCD of 1% on mobile phones remains unchanged. 4) Excise duty structure of 2% without CENVAT credit or 12.5% with credit is being extended to tablet computers. Parts, components and accessories (falling under any Chapter) for use in manufacture of tablet computers and their sub-parts for use in manufacture of parts, components and accessories are being fully exempted from excise duty, subject to actual user condition. 5) Excise duty on specified raw materials [battery, titanium, palladium wire, eutectic wire, silicone resins and rubbers, solder paste, reed s .....

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..... Cess and Secondary & Higher Education Cess leviable on excisable goods are being subsumed in Basic Excise duty. Consequently, Education Cess and Secondary & Higher Education Cess leviable on excisable goods are being fully exempted. The standard ad valorem rate of Basic Excise Duty is being increased from 12% to 12.5% and specific rates of Basic Excise Duty on petrol, diesel, cement, cigarettes & other tobacco products (other than biris) are being suitably changed. However, the total incidence of various duties of excise on petrol and diesel remains unchanged. Other Basic Excise Duty rates (ad valorem as well as specific) are not being changed. Education Cess and Secondary & Higher Education Cess levied on imported goods as a duty of customs, however, will continue. X. MISCELLANEOUS: 1) Full exemption from excise duty is being extended to captively consumed intermediate compound coming into existence during the manufacture of Agarbattis. Agarbattis attract NIL excise duty. 2) S. No. 337 of Notification No. 12/2012-CE dated 17-3-2012 provided Nil excise duty on goods for setting up Ultra Mega Power Project specified in List No. 10 of the said Notification. In case of goods for a .....

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..... d Diesel oil is being amended so as to increase the Scheduled rate from ₹ 2 per litre to ₹ 8 per litre. The effective rate of Additional Duty of Excise and Additional Duty of Customs (commonly known as Road Cess) on High Speed Diesel oil is being increased from ₹ 2 per litre to ₹ 6 per litre. [Clause 164] 3) The Seventh Schedule to the Finance Act, 2005 is being amended so as to omit the entry relating to levy of Additional Duty of Excise of 5% ad valorem on waters, including mineral waters and aerated waters containing added sugar. [Clause 184] 4) The Tenth Schedule to the Finance Act, 2010 dealing with Clean Energy Cess is being amended so as to increase the Scheduled rate of Clean Energy Cess from ₹ 100 per tonne to ₹ 300 per tonne. The effective rate of Clean Energy Cess is being increased from ₹ 100 per tonne to ₹ 200 per tonne. [Clause 188] The changes at Para 1), 2) and 4) will come into effect immediately owing to a declaration under the Provisional Collection of Taxes Act, 1931. SERVICE TAX 1. Change in Service Tax rate: • The Service Tax rate is being increased from 12% plus Education Cesses to 14%. The 'Educati .....

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..... ntry shall be continued, irrespective of the amount charged for such service, through the route of exemption. For this purpose a new entry is being inserted in Notification No. 25/2012-ST, dated 20.6.2012. The proposed changes shall come into effect from a date to be notified by the Central Government after the enactment of the Finance Bill, 2015. • The entry in the Negative List that covers service by way of any process amounting to manufacture or production of goods [section 66D (f)] is being pruned to exclude any service by way of carrying out any processes for production or manufacture of alcoholic liquor for human consumption. Consequently, Service Tax shall be levied on contract manufacturing /job work for production of potable liquor for a consideration. In this context, the definition of the term " process amounting to manufacture or production of goods" [ section 65B (40) is being amended] with a consequential amendment in S. No. 30 of notification No. 25/12-ST, to exclude intermediate production of alcoholic liquor for human consumption from its ambit. The proposed changes shall come into effect from a date to be notified by the Central Government after the enactm .....

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..... and salt. Transportation of agricultural produce is separately exempt, and this exemption would continue. • Exemptions are being withdrawn on the following services: (a) services provided by a mutual fund agent to a mutual fund or assets management company, (b) distributor to a mutual fund or AMC, (c) selling or marketing agent of lottery ticket to a distributor. Service tax on these services shall be levied on reverse charge basis. • Exemption is being withdrawn on the following service,- (a) Departmentally run public telephone; (b) Guaranteed public telephone operating only local calls; and (c) Service by way of making telephone calls from free telephone at airport and hospital where no bill is issued. All the above changes in notification No. 25/12-ST, dated 20.6.2012 shall come into effect from the 1st day of April, 2015. 4. New Exemptions: • Services by way of pre-conditioning, pre-cooling, ripening, waxing, retail packing, labeling of fruits and vegetables is being exempted. • Service provided by a Common Effluent Treatment Plant operator for treatment of effluent is being exempted. • Life insurance service provided by way of Varishtha P .....

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..... ull; The intention in law has been to levy Service Tax on the services provided by: (i) chit fund foremen by way of conducting a chit. (ii) distributors or selling agents of lottery, as appointed or authorized by the organizing state for promoting, marketing, distributing, selling, or assisting the state in any other way for organizing and conducting a lottery. However, Courts have taken a contrary view in some cases, while in some cases the levy has been upheld. An Explanation is being inserted in the definition of "service" to specifically state the intention of the legislature to levy service tax on activities undertaken by chit fund foremen in relation to chit, and distributors or selling agents of lottery in relation to lotteries. • Section 66F (1) prescribes that unless otherwise specified, reference to a service shall not include reference to any input service used for providing such service. An illustration is being incorporated in this section to exemplify the scope of this provision. • Section 67 prescribes for the valuation of taxable services. It is being prescribed specifically in this section that consideration for service shall include: (a) all reimb .....

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..... cent of service tax amount involved in such cases; (ii) penalty equal to 15% of the service tax amount is to be paid if service tax, interest and reduced penalty is paid within 30 days of service of notice in this regard; (iii) a reduced penalty equal to 25% of the service tax amount determined by the Central Excise Officer, by an order, is to be paid if the service tax, interest and reduced penalty is paid within 30 days of such order; and (iv) if the service tax amount gets reduced in any appellate proceeding, then penalty amount shall also stand modified accordingly, and benefit of reduced penalty (25%) shall be admissible if service tax, interest and reduced penalty is paid within 30 days of such appellate order. • A new section 78 B is being inserted to prescribe, by way of a transition provision, that,- (i) amended provisions of section 76 and 78 shall apply to cases where either no notice is served, or notice is served under sub-section (1) of section 73 or proviso thereto but no order has been issued under sub-section (2) of section 73, before the date of enactment of the Finance Bill, 2015; and (ii) in respect of cases covered by sub-section (4A) of section 73, .....

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..... f. 1.3.2015. • Rule 4 is being amended to provide that the CBEC, by way of an order, specify the conditions, safeguards and procedure for registration in service tax. • Provision for issuing digitally signed invoices are being added along with the option of presentation of records in electronic form. The conditions and procedure in this regard shall be specified by the CBEC. • Rule 6 (6A) which provided for recovery of service tax self-assessed and declared in the return under section 87 is being omitted consequent to amendment in section 73 for enabling such recovery. • In respect of certain services like money changing service, service provided by air travel agent, insurance service and service provided by lottery distributor and selling agent the service provider has been allowed to pay service tax at an alternative rate subject to the conditions as prescribed under rule 6 (7), 6(7A), 6(7B) and 6(7C) of the Service Tax Rules, 1994. Consequent to the upward revision in Service Tax rate, the said alternative rates shall also be revised proportionately. Amendments to this effect have been proposed in the Service Tax Rules. These amendments shall come into ef .....

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