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TMI Tax Updates - e-Newsletter
July 24, 2024
Case Laws in this Newsletter:
GST
Income Tax
Customs
FEMA
PMLA
Service Tax
CST, VAT & Sales Tax
Indian Laws
Articles
By: DR.MARIAPPAN GOVINDARAJAN
Summary: The Telangana High Court addressed the conflict between the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) and the SEBI Act in a case involving penalties imposed by SEBI on a company and its associates. SEBI had issued a recovery certificate for penalties amounting to Rs. 66.34 crores. The appellants contested this, citing ongoing insolvency proceedings and interim moratoriums under the IBC. The court ruled that IBC provisions override SEBI Act provisions but found no active moratoriums applicable to the appellants. Thus, SEBI's recovery actions were upheld, and the court dismissed the appeal, leaving the penalty versus fine issue unresolved.
By: CSSwati Rawat
Summary: The 2024-25 budget focuses on urban development and economic reforms. Key proposals include encouraging states to reduce stamp duties for properties bought by women and developing 100 street food hubs in select cities. Transit-oriented development and water management projects are planned for large cities. Financial measures include a 20% TDS on mutual fund repurchases, increased STT on futures and options, and a 12.5% tax on long-term capital gains. Duties on telecom equipment will rise, while those on mobile components will decrease. The budget also emphasizes GST rationalization, support for education loans, job creation, and women's workforce participation.
By: CSSwati Rawat
Summary: The budget introduces revised income tax slabs, with rates ranging from 5% for incomes between 3-7 lakh to 30% for incomes above 15 lakh. The standard tax deduction increases to Rs. 75,000, allowing salaried employees to save up to Rs. 17,500 annually. Customs duty exemptions are extended to three cancer medicines, and reduced to 6% for gold and silver, and 6.4% for platinum. Two charity tax exemption regimes are merged. Short-term gains on certain financial assets are taxed at 20%, and unlisted bonds and similar instruments are taxed at slab rates. The angel tax is abolished for all investor classes.
By: CSSwati Rawat
Summary: The 2024-25 Budget, presented by the Finance Minister, emphasizes nine priorities: agriculture productivity, employment, social justice, manufacturing, urban development, energy security, infrastructure, innovation, and reforms. Key initiatives include incentives for new workforce entrants, revised skill loan schemes, and credit guarantees for MSMEs. Infrastructure projects are planned for Bihar and Andhra Pradesh, with increased Mudra loan limits. Internship schemes and rental housing for workers are promoted. Urban development includes transit-oriented programs and street food hubs. The budget also supports solar energy, flood management in Assam, and temple corridor developments, while simplifying the tax structure and enhancing e-Shram portal integration.
News
Summary: India celebrates Income Tax Day 2024, marking the historical evolution of its tax system since 1860. The 2024-25 Budget introduces enhanced deductions and revised tax slabs, benefiting salaried employees and pensioners. The standard deduction for salaried individuals increases to Rs. 75,000, while family pension deductions rise to Rs. 25,000. The government has implemented measures to curb tax evasion, expand the tax base, and promote compliance through technological advancements. Personal income tax collections have significantly increased, reflecting improved compliance and economic resilience. Income Tax Day highlights the importance of taxation in supporting public services and national development.
Summary: The Budget 2024-25 introduces several amendments to customs notifications, effective from July 23, 2024. Key changes include extending the re-import period under notification No. 45/2017 and extending the validity of 32 notifications. Amendments also affect export duties on raw hides and leather, concessional rates for critical minerals, and health cess revisions. Notifications related to electronics, precious metals, and the India-UAE CEPA are also revised. Additionally, duty-free import provisions for commercial samples and countervailing duty rules are updated. These changes aim to streamline customs processes and adjust tariffs in line with economic objectives.
Summary: The Union Budget 2024-25, presented by the Finance Minister, outlines a fiscal plan with total receipts of Rs. 32.07 lakh crore and expenditure of Rs. 48.21 lakh crore, targeting a fiscal deficit of 4.9% of GDP. Key focuses include employment, skilling, MSMEs, and middle-class support, with initiatives like a package for youth employment and skilling, agricultural resilience, urban development, and energy security. Tax reforms aim to simplify the structure, enhance taxpayer services, and boost revenues. Notable changes include adjustments in GST, customs duties, and personal income tax rates, alongside measures to support startups and foreign investments.
Summary: The Union Budget 2024-2025 emphasizes employment, skilling, MSMEs, and the middle class, with a focus on nine priorities including agriculture, urban development, and energy security. A significant allocation of Rs. 2 lakh crore targets youth employment and skill development. The budget also introduces new agricultural initiatives, increases Mudra loan limits, and enhances rural and urban infrastructure. Tax reforms include increased standard deductions for salaried individuals and pensioners, reduced corporate tax for foreign companies, and simplified TDS rates. Custom duties are adjusted to support domestic manufacturing and exports, with specific reductions for essential goods. The budget aims for a fiscal deficit of 4.9% of GDP.
Summary: The Union Budget 2024-25, presented by the Finance Minister, focuses on incentivizing states for implementing Business Reforms Action Plans and digitalization to enhance ease of doing business. An Integrated Technology Platform will be established to improve outcomes under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), which has resolved over 1,000 companies, recovering more than Rs. 3.3 lakh crore for creditors. The budget proposes reforms to strengthen the IBC ecosystem, including additional tribunals for faster insolvency resolutions. The Centre for Processing Accelerated Corporate Exit will extend services for the voluntary closure of LLPs, and debt recovery tribunals will be strengthened to expedite recovery processes.
Summary: The Union Budget 2024-25 emphasizes enhancing agricultural productivity and developing climate-resilient crop varieties. It includes a comprehensive review of the agriculture research setup, with funding in challenge mode and oversight by domain experts. The government plans to release 109 high-yielding and 32 climate-resilient crop varieties. Additionally, one crore farmers will be introduced to natural farming over the next two years, supported by certification and branding, with 10,000 bio-input resource centers established. A National Cooperation Policy aims to boost rural economic growth and large-scale employment opportunities in the cooperative sector.
Summary: The Union Budget 2024-25 allocates Rs. 1.52 lakh crore to the agriculture and allied sectors, emphasizing digital infrastructure, self-reliance in oil seeds, and enhanced vegetable production. A digital crop survey for Kharif will cover 400 districts, integrating 6 crore farmers into registries. Strategies for self-sufficiency in pulses and oilseeds are being developed, while large vegetable production clusters will be established near major consumption centers. Financial support is allocated for shrimp broodstock breeding centers. The government has also raised the Minimum Support Prices for major crops and extended the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana for five years, aiding over 80 crore people.
Summary: The Union Finance Minister announced eight new measures to support Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in the 2024-25 budget. Key initiatives include a credit guarantee scheme for MSMEs in manufacturing, development of a new credit assessment model by Public Sector Banks, and enhanced Mudra loans up to Rs. 20 lakh. The budget also proposes halving the turnover threshold for mandatory onboarding on the TReDS platform and establishing new SIDBI branches in MSME clusters. Additionally, financial support will be provided for food irradiation units and e-commerce export hubs to facilitate MSMEs' access to international markets.
Summary: The government has introduced a new scheme under the Prime Minister's package to offer internship opportunities to 1 crore youth in 500 top companies over five years. Announced during the Union Budget 2024-25, the initiative aims to provide 12-month internships, offering exposure to real-life business environments and various professions. Participants will receive a monthly allowance of Rs. 5,000 and a one-time assistance of Rs. 6,000. Companies involved are expected to cover training costs and 10% of the internship expenses using their CSR funds.
Summary: A new centrally sponsored scheme for skilling has been announced as the fourth scheme under the Prime Minister's package. The initiative aims to skill 20 lakh youth over five years and upgrade 1,000 Industrial Training Institutes in collaboration with state governments and industry. The scheme will align course content with industry needs and introduce new courses for emerging requirements. Additionally, the Model Skill Loan Scheme will be revised to offer loans up to Rs. 7.5 lakh, benefiting 25,000 students annually, with a guarantee from a government-promoted fund.
Summary: The government will introduce three Employment Linked Incentive schemes as part of the Prime Minister's package, announced by the Union Finance Minister during the Union Budget 2024-25 presentation. Scheme A will provide a one-month wage to new workforce entrants in formal sectors, benefiting 210 lakh youth. Scheme B will incentivize additional employment in manufacturing, targeting first-time employees, and is expected to benefit 30 lakh youth. Scheme C focuses on employers, offering reimbursement for EPFO contributions for additional employees earning up to Rs. 1 lakh monthly, aiming to incentivize the employment of 50 lakh individuals.
Summary: The Finance Minister highlighted the success of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in reducing tax burdens on citizens, compliance requirements, and logistics costs for businesses. During the 2024-25 Union Budget presentation, several amendments to GST laws were announced to facilitate trade. Key changes include excluding Extra Neutral Alcohol from central tax, empowering the government to address tax non-levy issues, extending deadlines for input tax credit and reduced penalty benefits, and lowering pre-deposit amounts for appeals. Additionally, the GST Appellate Tribunal will be empowered to handle anti-profiteering cases, with further simplifications and expansions planned for the tax structure.
Summary: The Union Finance Minister announced significant tax reforms in the 2024-2025 Budget aimed at simplifying taxation and enhancing taxpayer services. Key measures include a comprehensive review of the Income-tax Act, 1961, digitalization of GST, Customs, and Income Tax services, and the introduction of the Vivad se Vishwas Scheme, 2024 to resolve pending tax disputes. The budget also proposes merging tax exemption regimes for charities, reducing TDS rates, and increasing monetary limits for tax-related appeals. Additionally, the budget aims to expand the tax base by increasing the Security Transactions Tax and taxing income from share buybacks, with a projected net revenue impact of Rs. 7,000 crore annually.
Summary: The Union Budget 2024-25, presented by the Finance Minister, introduced changes to capital gains taxation. Short-term gains on certain financial assets will now be taxed at 20%, while long-term gains on all assets will incur a 12.5% tax. The exemption limit for long-term capital gains on financial assets has been raised from Rs. 1 lakh to Rs. 1.25 lakh annually. Listed financial assets held over a year are long-term, whereas unlisted financial and non-financial assets require a two-year holding period. Unlisted bonds, debentures, and certain debt instruments will be taxed at applicable rates regardless of holding duration.
Summary: The Finance Minister of India presented the Budget for 2024-2025, emphasizing economic growth amidst global uncertainties. Key focuses include inflation control, employment, skilling, and support for MSMEs. The budget outlines initiatives for agriculture, urban development, energy security, and infrastructure, with significant allocations for education and rural development. Tax reforms aim to simplify processes and enhance compliance, with changes in customs and direct taxes to support domestic manufacturing and investment. The budget also introduces measures for social justice, women-led development, and innovation, aiming for inclusive growth and fiscal consolidation.
Summary: The Union Finance Minister announced the abolition of angel tax for all investor classes to support the Indian start-up ecosystem and innovation. The corporate tax rate for foreign companies will be reduced from 40% to 35% to attract foreign investment. A financial sector vision and strategy document will be introduced to guide economic financing needs. Additionally, a taxonomy for climate finance will be developed to support climate commitments. Simplified rules for foreign direct and overseas investments will be implemented, alongside a simpler tax regime for foreign shipping companies to boost cruise tourism. Safe harbor rates will be introduced for foreign mining companies in the diamond industry.
Summary: The Finance Minister announced reforms in Customs Duties aimed at bolstering domestic manufacturing and enhancing export competitiveness. Key measures include exempting 25 critical minerals and three cancer drugs from Customs Duties, reducing duties on mobile phones and components to 15%, and lowering duties on seafood and leather raw materials. The reforms also include a reduction of duties on gold, silver, and platinum to boost domestic value addition in jewelry. The Minister emphasized the importance of simplifying the Customs Duty structure to ease trade and reduce disputes, with a comprehensive review planned in the coming months.
Summary: India's Union Budget 2024-25, presented by the Finance Minister, emphasizes nine priority areas aimed at transformative changes, including agriculture productivity, employment skilling, and infrastructure development. Despite global economic uncertainties, India's growth remains robust. The budget outlines total receipts of Rs. 32.07 lakh crore and expenditures of Rs. 48.21 lakh crore, with a fiscal deficit projected at 4.9% of GDP. The government plans to reduce the fiscal deficit below 4.5% by next year, maintaining a fiscal consolidation path that has benefited the economy. Future budgets will expand on these priorities to achieve sustained economic growth.
Summary: The government has introduced measures to make the new tax regime more appealing, as announced by the Union Finance and Corporate Affairs Minister during the Union Budget 2024-25 presentation. Key changes include increasing the standard deduction for salaried employees from Rs. 50,000 to Rs. 75,000 and enhancing the deduction on family pensions for pensioners from Rs. 15,000 to Rs. 25,000. These adjustments aim to provide tax relief to approximately four crore salaried individuals and pensioners, potentially saving a salaried employee up to Rs. 17,500 annually in income tax.
Summary: The Union Budget 2024-25, presented by the Finance Minister, introduces a Rs. 2 lakh crore package targeting employment and skill development for 4.1 crore youth over five years. It includes five schemes: Scheme A offers wage subsidies for first-time employees; Scheme B incentivizes manufacturing sector job creation; Scheme C supports employers hiring additional staff. A new skilling initiative, with a Rs. 60,000 crore budget, will upgrade 1,000 ITIs. Additionally, a comprehensive internship program will provide opportunities in 500 companies, offering allowances and requiring companies to contribute to training costs. The initiatives aim to boost employment and skill levels across sectors.
Summary: India's economy exhibited robust growth in FY 2023-24, with real growth at 8.2% and nominal growth at 9.6%. The Reserve Bank of India forecasts a 7.2% growth for FY 2024-25. Retail inflation eased to 5.4% from 6.7% the previous year. The fiscal deficit is projected at 4.9% of GDP, with a goal to reduce it below 4.5% by next year. Gross market borrowings are estimated at Rs. 14.01 lakh crore. The Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) ratio of Scheduled Commercial Banks decreased to 2.8%. Gross Tax Revenue is expected to grow by 11.7%, with GST receipts estimated at Rs. 10.62 lakh crore.
Summary: The Union Budget 2024-25 outlines a significant investment of Rs. 10 lakh crore under the PM Awas Yojana Urban 2.0 to address the housing needs of 1 crore urban poor and middle-class families. This includes central assistance of Rs. 2.2 lakh crore over five years and provisions for interest subsidies on loans. The government plans to facilitate rental housing for industrial workers through public-private partnerships. Additionally, the budget emphasizes developing cities as growth hubs, enhancing water supply and sanitation in 100 large cities, supporting weekly haats, and encouraging states to reduce high stamp duties, especially for women buyers.
Summary: India's Union Finance Minister announced initiatives in the 2024-25 budget to position India as a global tourist destination, which aims to create jobs and stimulate economic opportunities. The government plans to develop the Vishnupad Temple Corridor and Mahabodhi Temple Corridor in Bihar into world-class destinations, following the model of the Kashi Vishwanath Temple Corridor. Additionally, development projects for Rajgir and Nalanda as tourist centers will be supported, alongside efforts to enhance Odisha's tourism appeal. These initiatives are expected to boost investments and unlock economic potential in various sectors.
Summary: A new pension scheme named Vatsalya has been introduced for minors as part of the Union Budget 2024-25. Proposed by the Union Minister for Finance, this contributory scheme involves contributions from parents and guardians. Upon reaching adulthood, the account can transition into a regular National Pension Scheme (NPS) account. The Finance Minister also noted significant progress by the committee reviewing the NPS and acknowledged the constructive approach of the National Council's Staff Side. The aim is to develop a solution that addresses key issues while ensuring fiscal responsibility for the benefit of citizens.
Summary: The Union Finance Minister announced the launch of the Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan to enhance the socio-economic conditions of tribal communities. The initiative, part of the Union Budget 2024-25, will implement a saturation coverage strategy targeting tribal families in tribal-majority villages and aspirational districts. The scheme aims to cover 63,000 villages, benefiting approximately 5 crore tribal individuals nationwide. This approach focuses on inclusive human resource development and social justice for tribal populations.
Summary: The Union Budget 2024-25, presented by the Finance Minister, emphasizes the government's commitment to enhancing women's roles in economic development. Over Rs. 3 lakh crore has been allocated to schemes benefiting women and girls, aiming to promote women-led development. The budget highlights initiatives such as setting up working women hostels in collaboration with industry, establishing creches, organizing women-specific skill programs, and promoting market access for women self-help group enterprises. These measures are part of a broader commitment to ensure progress for all Indians, regardless of religion, caste, gender, or age.
Summary: The government announced financial support for higher education loans up to Rs. 10 lakh for youth not eligible under existing schemes. E-vouchers will be provided to 1 lakh students annually, offering a 3% interest subvention on loans. Additionally, the Anusandhan National Research Fund will be activated to support basic research and prototype development. A mechanism will also be established to encourage private sector-driven research and innovation, backed by a Rs. 1 lakh crore financing pool, as part of the Union Budget 2024-25.
Summary: The Union Budget 2024-25, presented by the Union Finance Minister, emphasizes a "Saturation Approach" for inclusive human resource development and social justice. This strategy aims to comprehensively empower farmers, youth, women, and the poor by enhancing capabilities through education and health programs. The budget outlines nine thematic goals, including employment skilling, agriculture productivity, and energy security, to drive transformative changes. Key initiatives such as PM Vishwakarma, PM SVANidhi, National Livelihood Missions, and Stand-Up India will be intensified to support economic activities among craftsmen, artisans, self-help groups, and entrepreneurs from disadvantaged communities.
Summary: The Union Budget 2024-2025 introduces several initiatives to enhance energy transition and sustainability. A policy for promoting pumped storage projects will be developed to support electricity storage and integrate renewable energy. The budget expands the list of exempted capital goods for solar cell manufacturing while discontinuing customs duty exemptions for solar glass and tinned copper interconnects. The government will collaborate with the private sector on small and modular nuclear reactors, and a joint venture will establish an 800 MW plant using Advanced Ultra Super Critical technology. The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana aims to provide free electricity to 1 crore households, with significant public interest already shown.
Summary: The Union Budget 2024-2025 introduces a Rs. 1,000 crore venture capital fund to expand the space economy fivefold over the next decade. Customs duty on mobile phones, PCBA, and chargers will be reduced to 15%, while duty on oxygen-free copper for resistors and certain connector parts will be removed. Conversely, customs duty on specified telecom equipment PCBA will increase from 10% to 15%. The budget emphasizes digitalization, proposing the development of Digital Public Infrastructure applications across various sectors to boost productivity and innovation. These measures aim to enhance technology adoption and digital infrastructure in India.
Summary: The Union Budget 2024-25 outlines incentives for completing land reform actions within three years, focusing on both rural and urban areas. Rural initiatives include assigning Unique Land Parcel Identification Numbers, digitizing cadastral maps, and linking land registries to farmers' registries to enhance credit flow and agricultural services. Urban efforts involve digitizing land records with GIS mapping and establishing IT systems for property record and tax administration to improve urban local bodies' financial positions. These reforms aim to enhance land administration, planning, and management across the country.
Summary: The Union Budget 2024-25 outlines the creation of twelve "plug and play" industrial parks under the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme, aiming to boost manufacturing services. A Critical Mineral Mission is proposed to enhance domestic production, recycling, and overseas acquisition of critical minerals, along with technology development and skilled workforce initiatives. The budget also emphasizes labor reforms, integrating the e-shram portal with others to provide comprehensive services for employment and skill development. Additionally, the ShramSuvidha and Samadhan portals will be revamped to improve compliance ease for industry and trade, supporting the goal of a developed India.
Summary: The Budget 2024-25 allocates Rs. 11,11,111 crore for capital expenditure, accounting for 3.4% of GDP, to boost infrastructure development. A provision of Rs. 1.5 lakh crore in long-term interest-free loans encourages state governments to invest in infrastructure. Private sector investment will be promoted through viability gap funding and enabling policies. Phase IV of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana aims to provide all-weather connectivity to 25,000 rural habitations. Financial support is announced for flood and landslide-affected states, including Bihar, Assam, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Sikkim, focusing on flood management and infrastructure rehabilitation.
Summary: The Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2024, was announced on July 23, 2024. The bill outlines new financial measures and tax policies aimed at enhancing economic growth and addressing fiscal challenges. Key provisions include adjustments in tax rates, introduction of new tax incentives for businesses, and measures to improve tax compliance. The bill is part of the government's broader strategy to stimulate investment and ensure fiscal sustainability.
Summary: The Union Budget 2024-25 documentation includes the Finance (No.2) Act, 2024, which was introduced on July 23, 2024. The materials comprise the Finance Bill organized by clauses and chapters, explanatory notes, budget speech, customs notifications, and implementation status reports (as of February 1, 2025). The documentation also includes economic survey highlights and budget news, with references to previous and upcoming budgets.
Summary: The Economic Survey 2023-24 projects India's real GDP growth between 6.5% and 7% for FY25, emphasizing the need for collaboration among government, private sector, and academia to sustain progress. Infrastructure expansion and a resilient external sector are highlighted, alongside a significant decline in unemployment to 3.2% in 2022-23. The agriculture sector shows robust growth, with an average annual rate of 4.18% over five years. Social sector spending has increased, with healthcare becoming more accessible. The female labor force participation rate rose to 37% in 2022-23. The services sector remains a major economic contributor, accounting for 55% of the economy.
Summary: The Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India emphasized the critical role of assurance functions in managing risks and fostering sustainable growth in the financial sector. He highlighted the importance of regulatory frameworks that adapt to technological advancements and evolving consumer demands. Key challenges such as third-party dependencies, cybersecurity, and customer conduct were discussed, urging financial entities to enhance transparency and operational resilience. The Deputy Governor advocated for a Combined Assurance Model to integrate risk management functions, streamline processes, and improve governance. He stressed the need for a proactive approach to risk management to maintain trust and confidence in the financial system.
Notifications
Customs
1.
39/2024 - dated
23-7-2024
-
Cus
Seeks to amend notification No. 45/2017-Customs dated 30th June, 2017 in order to extend the time period of re-import.
Summary: The Government of India has issued Notification No. 39/2024-Customs, amending Notification No. 45/2017-Customs to extend the re-import period from three to five years. It introduces new entries for lubricating oil and fuel used in aircraft engines, specifying conditions for duty exemptions. Lubricating oil and fuel used by Indian Airlines or the Indian Air Force are exempt from customs duty and integrated tax, provided no drawback or refund was claimed at departure. The notification is effective from July 24, 2024, and includes corrections made on July 29, 2024.
2.
38/2024 - dated
23-7-2024
-
Cus
Seeks to amend 32 notifications in order to extend their validity to a further period and amend notification No. 153/94-Customs to extend the time period for re-export of certain foreign origin goods when imported for maintenance, repair and overhaul.
Summary: The Government of India has issued Notification No. 38/2024-Customs to amend 32 existing notifications, extending their validity and adjusting specific conditions. Notably, Notification No. 153/94-Customs is amended to allow a re-export period of up to two years for certain foreign-origin goods imported for maintenance, repair, and overhaul. The amendments generally extend the effect of these notifications from September 30, 2024, to either March 31, 2026, or March 31, 2029, depending on the specific notification. These changes come into effect on July 24, 2024, under the authority of the Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue.
3.
37/2024 - dated
23-7-2024
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Cus
Seeks to amend notification no. 27/2011-Customs dated 1st March, 2011 in order to amend the export duty on specified items of raw hides, skins and leather.
Summary: The Government of India, under the Ministry of Finance, has issued Notification No. 37/2024-Customs to amend the export duty on specific raw hides, skins, and leather items. Effective from July 24, 2024, the amendments introduce new tariff rates: raw hides and skins (excluding buffalo) at 40%, buffalo hides at 30%, tanned or crust hides and skins at 20%, and E.I. tanned leather and finished leather at nil. Additionally, raw furskins are taxed at 40%, and tanned or dressed furskins at 20%. Several previous tariff entries have been omitted.
4.
36/2024 - dated
23-7-2024
-
Cus
Seeks to provide exemption/concessional rate of BCD and SWS to critical minerals - 36/2024 dated 23rd July 2024
Summary: The Government of India, through the Ministry of Finance, has issued Notification No. 36/2024-Customs, dated July 23, 2024, to provide exemptions or concessional rates on Basic Customs Duty (BCD) and Social Welfare Surcharge (SWS) for specific critical minerals. The notification lists various minerals, ores, and compounds, detailing their respective tariff items and the applicable duty rates, with many items being exempt from duties entirely. This measure aims to facilitate the importation of these critical minerals into India, effective from July 24, 2024.
5.
35/2024 - dated
23-7-2024
-
Cus
Seeks to amend notification No. 8/2020-Customs dated 1st February, 2020 in order to revise Health Cess on certain items.
Summary: Notification No. 35/2024-Customs, issued by the Government of India, amends Notification No. 8/2020-Customs to revise the Health Cess on specific items. This amendment, effective from July 24, 2024, introduces a new entry under Sl. No. 2 in the existing notification, referencing Notification No. 52/2003-Customs. This change is made under the authority of the Customs Act, 1962, and the Finance Act, 2020, with the intent of serving the public interest. The principal notification was initially issued on February 2, 2020, and last amended on March 29, 2023.
6.
34/2024 - dated
23-7-2024
-
Cus
Seeks to amend notification related to electronics including Nos. 25/1999-Customs, 25/2002-Customs and 57/2017-Customs
Summary: The Government of India, through the Ministry of Finance, has issued Notification No. 34/2024-Customs to amend previous customs notifications concerning electronics, specifically Nos. 25/1999-Customs, 25/2002-Customs, and 57/2017-Customs. Key amendments include extending certain deadlines from September 30, 2024, to March 31, 2029, and updating lists of exempt items. New categories such as connectors and materials like oxygen-free copper and printed circuit board assemblies for mobile phones are included. The notification takes effect on July 24, 2024, aiming to align with public interest and industry needs.
7.
33/2024 - dated
23-7-2024
-
Cus
Seeks to amend notification No. 57/2000-Customs dated 8th May 2000, which provides concessional rate for gold, silver and platinum imported under specified schemes. - Rates reduced from 9.35% to 4.35%
Summary: The Government of India, through the Ministry of Finance, has amended Notification No. 57/2000-Customs to reduce the concessional customs duty rate on gold, silver, and platinum imported under specified schemes from 9.35% to 4.35%. This amendment, issued under Notification No. 33/2024-Customs, is made in the public interest and will take effect on July 24, 2024. The principal notification was initially published on May 8, 2000, and has undergone previous amendments, the latest being on April 1, 2023.
8.
32/2024 - dated
23-7-2024
-
Cus
Seeks to amend notification No. 11/2021-Customs dated 1st February, 2021 so as to revise Agriculture Infrastructure and Development Cess (AIDC) applicable on certain items. - AIDC on Precious Metals reduced substantially.
Summary: The Government of India has amended Notification No. 11/2021-Customs to revise the Agriculture Infrastructure and Development Cess (AIDC) on certain items, specifically reducing the AIDC on precious metals. The revised rates are as follows: 1.4% for Sl. No. 15A, 0.35% for Sl. Nos. 15B, 15C, and 15E, and 1% for Sl. Nos. 15D, 15F, and 15G. These changes will be effective from July 24, 2024. The notification is issued under the authority of the Customs Act, 1962 and the Finance Act, 2021.
9.
31/2024 - dated
23-7-2024
-
Cus
Seeks to amend notification No. 22/2022-Customs dated 30th April, 2022 to revise rates under India-UAE CEPA.
Summary: The Government of India, through the Ministry of Finance, has issued Notification No. 31/2024-Customs to amend Notification No. 22/2022-Customs dated 30th April 2022. This amendment revises the rates under the India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA). Specifically, in Table III of the original notification, the entry in Column (5) is changed to "4" and in Column (6) to "1" against S. No. 12. These changes will take effect on 24th July 2024.
10.
30/2024 - dated
23-7-2024
-
Cus
Seeks to further amend notification No. 50/2017-Customs dated the 30th June, 2017, so as to notify BCD related changes
Summary: The Government of India has issued Notification No. 30/2024-Customs, dated 23rd July 2024, to amend the previous Notification No. 50/2017-Customs. This amendment introduces changes to the Basic Customs Duty (BCD) on various goods, including live shrimp broodstock, Artemia, crude fish oil, shea nuts, and insect meal, among others. It also specifies new tariff rates and conditions for certain goods, such as solar photovoltaic cells, catalytic converters, and X-ray machine components. Several serial numbers and entries have been introduced, modified, or omitted, with specific provisions set to expire on various dates, ranging from 2024 to 2029. The notification is effective from 24th July 2024.
11.
29/2024 - dated
23-7-2024
-
Cus
Seeks to amend notification No. 154/94-Customs dated the 13th July, 1994 which provides for duty free import of commercial samples.
Summary: The Government of India has amended Notification No. 154/94-Customs, dated July 13, 1994, which allows for duty-free import of commercial samples. The amendment, effective from July 24, 2024, increases the duty-free limit for commercial samples from Rs. 1,00,000 (One lakh) to Rs. 3,00,000 (Three lakhs) under condition (v), clause (A), sub-clause (b) in the notification's table. This change is made under the authority of the Customs Act, 1962, by the Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue, to serve public interest.
12.
51/2024 - dated
23-7-2024
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Cus (NT)
Seeks to amend Customs Tariff (Identification, Assessment and Collection Countervailing Duty on Subsidized Articles and for Determination of Injury) Rules, 1995 to provide for New Shippers Review.
Summary: The Government of India has issued Notification No. 51/2024-Customs (N.T.) to amend the Customs Tariff Rules, 1995, specifically addressing countervailing duties on subsidized articles. Effective from July 24, 2024, the amendment introduces a New Shippers Review, allowing the determination of individual subsidy margins for exporters or producers not originally investigated, provided they are unrelated to those already subject to duties. During the review period, countervailing duties will not be levied on these exporters, although provisional assessments and guarantees may be required. Duties may be applied retrospectively if subsidies are determined. Existing duties may extend to previously uninvestigated exporters.
Circulars / Instructions / Orders
DGFT
1.
Trade Notice No. 09/2024-25 - dated
23-7-2024
Verification of authenticity of Licences, Authorisations, Scrips, Certificates, Instruments etc. issued by DGFT using the UDIN.
Summary: The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) has issued a trade notice regarding the verification of the authenticity of licenses, authorizations, scrips, certificates, and instruments using the Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN). This facility is available on the DGFT website and allows stakeholders to verify electronically-issued documents without requiring login credentials. The UDIN is located at the top-right corner of documents and can be entered on the website to access the complete electronic document for verification. Stakeholders are advised to use this facility and not refer verification requests to DGFT.
Customs
2.
D.O. F.No. 334/04/2024-TRU - dated
23-7-2024
Changes in Customs, Central Excise, GST law and rates have been proposed through the Finance (No.2) Bill, 2024
Summary: The Finance (No.2) Bill, 2024 proposes various amendments to customs, central excise, and GST laws, along with changes in duty rates. Key changes include reductions in basic customs duty (BCD) on agricultural goods, critical minerals, aquafarming inputs, and electronics, while increasing BCD on ammonium nitrate and certain chemicals. Exemptions are proposed for cancer drugs, and the textile and leather sectors see reduced BCD on specific materials. Legislative amendments in customs and GST Acts aim to streamline processes and provide clarity. The Bill also reviews exemptions, extending some and lapsing others, with changes effective upon enactment or specified dates.
3.
Instruction No. 19/2024 - dated
22-7-2024
Provisional attachment of bank account(s) - Section 110 (5) of Customs Act, 1962
Summary: The circular outlines the procedure for the provisional attachment of bank accounts under Section 110(5) of the Customs Act, 1962, emphasizing the need for due diligence and proper documentation. The proper officer must form a justified opinion, approved by the Principal Commissioner, to attach an account for up to six months, extendable for another six months. The attachment order must be communicated to both the bank and account holder. The decision should be based on protecting revenue interests or preventing smuggling, with reasons documented. The process should ensure timely investigation and adjudication to recover dues efficiently.
Highlights / Catch Notes
GST
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CSD to file GST refund applications sequentially on portal. Upload invoices, bank details. Preview before submission. NIL claim if no refund.
News : Detailed process outlined for Canteen Store Department (CSD) to file refund application FORM GST RFD-10A on GST portal for refund of tax paid on inward supply of goods. Refund applications to be filed sequentially; NIL refund claim required for periods with no refund claim. Refund period selection available from July 2017; NIL refund claim needed for earlier periods. Statement of invoices to be uploaded. Bank account details required for refund disbursement. Refund application can be previewed before submission; no changes allowed post-submission. Grievances to be reported on redressal portal.
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Order u/s 74(9) post taxpayer's demise unenforceable. SCN issued, reply filed. Hearing on 7/2/24. 13/3/24 order set aside.
Case-Laws - HC : Order passed by Proper Officer u/s 74(9) of West Bengal GST/CGST Act, 2017 subsequent to demise of registered taxpayer held unenforceable. Show cause notice issued, taxpayer responded. Opportunity of hearing afforded on 7th February, 2024. Order dated 13th March, 2024 passed after taxpayer's demise set aside. Petition disposed.
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HC held GST dept can't deny refund on inverted duty citing SC's Kusum Ingots ratio. Impugned order set aside, fresh order for refund in 3 months.
Case-Laws - HC : The High Court held that the provisions of GST enactments being applicable pan India, the department cannot take a contrary stand to the Supreme Court's ratio in Kusum Ingots & Alloys Ltd. versus Union of India. Therefore, the impugned order denying the benefit of refund on account of the Inverted Duty Structure to the petitioner is unsustainable. The impugned order was set aside, and the case was remitted back to the respondent to pass a fresh order sanctioning the refund to the petitioner within three months, in light of the mentioned orders. The petition was allowed by way of remand.
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Petitioner's Natural Justice Violation: Court Orders Fresh Review on ITC Mismatch and Tax Classification Issues.
Case-Laws - HC : Violation of principles of natural justice occurred as petitioner's contentions were not considered - mismatch between petitioner's GSTR 3B returns and auto-populated GSTR 2A - third respondent failed to discuss petitioner's explanation for classifying product as farm tractor or record reasons for rejecting such explanation - regarding ITC mismatch, petitioner referred to issuance of invoices after financial year-end, but third respondent erroneously recorded petitioner's contention as ITC matching not being mandatory requirement - impugned order partly set aside concerning ITC mismatch and rate of tax difference/classification issues - third respondent directed to provide reasonable opportunity, including personal hearing, and issue fresh order within three months - petition disposed of.
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Lack of ASMT-10 notice invalidated scrutiny, not adjudication. Petitioner's silence confirmed tax demand. Chance to contest merits granted on 10% deposit.
Case-Laws - HC : Non-issuance of ASMT-10 notice vitiated scrutiny conclusions but not adjudication as petitioner was provided opportunity to show cause - Tax proposal confirmed due to petitioner's failure to reply - Petitioner asserted unawareness of proceedings - Interest of justice warrants opportunity to contest tax demand on merits - Impugned assessment order set aside on condition of remitting 10% of disputed tax demand within 15 days and permitting petitioner to submit reply to show cause notice - Matter remanded for reconsideration in one case.
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Order upholding quashing of penalty for goods transport upheld. Seizure allowed only if documents not genuine under Act. Documents genuine.
Case-Laws - HC : Impugned order quashing levy of penalty for transportation of goods upheld. Power of detention or seizure can only be exercised when goods lack genuine documents under Act. Genuineness of documents not disputed. Allegation that prescribed documents not produced unsupported. Once accompanying documents found genuine, goods should not have been seized. Impugned order dated 06.03.2024 quashed, petition allowed.
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Petitioner can file representation to Additional Chief Secretary on tax liability for govt contracts pre/post GST within 4 weeks. Decision in 4 months.
Case-Laws - HC : Petitioner granted liberty to file representation before Additional Chief Secretary, Finance Department within four weeks regarding respondent's authority to bear additional tax liability for government contracts awarded pre or post GST regime without incorporating applicable GST in Schedule of Rates while preparing Bill of Quantities. Additional Chief Secretary to take final decision within four months after consulting relevant departments upon receiving representation.
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Expats' service tax on salaries & perks under manpower supply agency: Petitioners get time till 15.01.2024 to respond. No coercive recovery if adverse order.
Case-Laws - HC : Petitioners granted time until 15.01.2024 to file comprehensive response regarding levy of service tax on salaries and perquisites of expats under Manpower Recruitment or Supply Agency Service. Respondents to take decision after receiving response. No coercive steps for recovery of amount in case of adverse order against petitioners during pendency of writ petition. Matter adjourned to 13.02.2024.
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Power Company Must Pay GST on Coal Movement Fees; No Exemption for Forestry-Related Activities.
Case-Laws - AAAR : The Abhivahan Shulk collected by the Chhattisgarh Forest Department from the appellant in lieu of granting permission for coal movement is not eligible for Nil rate of GST under SI. No. 4 & 5 of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) as it is neither related to "Urban forestry, protection of environment and ecological aspect" nor "Social forestry or farm forestry." The appellant, a power generating company, pays Abhivahan Shulk throughout the year on a recurring basis to the Forest Department for transit pass issuance. This constitutes "supply of continuous service" u/s 2(33) of CGST Act, 2017. Hence, the appellant is ineligible for exemption under SI. No. 9 of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) as the Abhivahan Permission Shulk paid exceeds Rs. 5000 in a financial year.
Income Tax
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Reassessment Order Annulled: High Court Upholds ITAT's Finding of Undue Influence and Statutory Delay.
Case-Laws - HC : The Assessing Officer (AO) initiated reassessment proceedings u/s 147/148 against the assessee based on documents seized from the premises of J.K. Jain during a CBI search. The ITAT found that the AO passed the final reassessment order on the dictates and directions of superior authorities, compromising the independent exercise of quasi-judicial powers. The AO sought guidance from superiors at every stage, even drafting the questionnaire and skeleton order on their instructions. The proceedings were vitiated as the AO discussed the merits and conducted the proceedings under influence, contrary to the requirement of acting judicially and independently. The HC upheld the ITAT's findings, concluding that the reassessment order was the outcome of bias, as it was passed on dictation from higher authorities. Furthermore, the delay in framing the reassessment order exceeded the statutory limitation u/s 153.
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Income from commodity transactions disclosed; reopening of assessment invalid. Lack of factual basis & non-application of mind by Revenue.
Case-Laws - HC : Reopening of assessment held invalid due to lack of factual basis and non-application of mind by Revenue. Assessee had already disclosed relevant income from commodity transactions in return and supporting documents. Notice u/s 148 and order rejecting objections quashed, being legally unsustainable.
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Expenditure on power, fuel & hired machines treated as capital expenditure for cement unit by ITAT, contrary to Revenue.
Case-Laws - HC : Expenditure on power, fuel, and lease rent for hired machines held as capital expenditure incurred for establishing cement manufacturing unit at Bilaspur by ITAT, contrary to CIT(A) treating it as revenue expenditure. HC observed Revenue unable to state if appeal filed against Tribunal's order for AY 1984-85 on same issue. Principle of consistency applied based on Tribunal's order for AY 1984-85 in M/s. Raymond Woollen Mills Ltd. and HC orders for subsequent AYs. Referred Supreme Court's rulings in Godrej and Boyce Manufacturing Company Ltd. and Radhasoami Satsang reiterating need for consistency, certainty, and strong reasons for departure from settled position, which was absent. Assessee's appeal allowed.
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Interest can't be charged post-CIRP if amount frozen by IBC moratorium & not in approved plan. Excluded claims extinguished.
Case-Laws - HC : Interest u/ss 234A, 234B, and 234C cannot be charged post Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process when the amount has been frozen by moratorium under IBC and not part of the approved Resolution Plan. Claims not included in the Resolution Plan stand extinguished, and no proceedings can be initiated for such claims. The order charging interest and the consequent demand notice were quashed, and the petitioner is entitled to a refund of the amount paid for the relevant assessment year.
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Company Denied Refund of Excess Dividend Tax Paid, Must Follow Domestic Tax Law Over India-Mauritius Treaty Rates.
Case-Laws - AT : Assessee company paid Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT) on dividends distributed to its holding company, a tax resident of Mauritius, at higher rates under the Income Tax Act instead of lower rate of 5% prescribed under the India-Mauritius DTAA. Assessee claimed refund of excess DDT, alleging wrongful denial of treaty benefit. Following the Special Bench decision in Total Oil case, it was held that dividend declared by a domestic company to a non-resident should be taxed at the rate given u/s 115-O, and not the beneficial rates under DTAA, unless the contracting state extends treaty protection to the domestic company. No such protection was shown in the instant case. Hence, treaty benefit was not available in relation to Section 115-O, and assessee's appeals were dismissed.
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Court Upholds Legitimate Business Expense Deductions Despite Circular Transactions; Revenue Appeal Dismissed.
Case-Laws - AT : Disallowance of financial expenses in proportion to purchase from bogus companies was challenged. The assessing officer disallowed expenditure to the extent of paper transactions not backed by actual business. The CIT(A) disallowed losses on circular transactions as artificial and managed but allowed financial charges incurred for business purposes. The assessee pleaded that funds were required for working capital, but in paper transactions, there is no capital requirement as there was no actual purchase or sale. The assessee adopted the route of circular trading to raise higher finance from banks. The discounting charges on letters of credit paid to banks were genuine. The funds raised were used to augment working capital for delivery-based business. There was no diversion of funds. The funds from discounted letters of credit were used for business and allowable u/s 36(1)(iii). No ground to interfere with CIT(A)'s conclusions. The Revenue's ground was dismissed.
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ITAT Upholds Adjustments for Late Employee Contribution Payments to PF and ESIC; Dismisses Assessee's Claims.
Case-Laws - AT : The ITAT upheld the validity of adjustments made in the intimation u/s 143(1) regarding the addition of payment of employees' contribution to PF and ESIC beyond the due date. The assessee's objection that the Apex Court's decision in Checkmate Services Private Limited case was applicable only for scrutiny assessments and not for processing returns u/s 143(1) was rejected. The intimation dated 31.03.2021, though communicated on 01.04.2021, was held not barred by limitation as the extended time limit for processing the return was till 31.01.2024. The nature of adjustment was properly reflected in the intimation, and the prior intimation regarding proposed adjustments was sent to the assessee's email account, which was legally valid. The assessee's contention of not receiving the prior intimation was dismissed, and the ITAT found the assessee had misrepresented facts.
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Approval u/s 153D must reflect due diligence, not mere formality. Scrutiny of seized docs mandatory. Safeguard against arbitrary assessment.
Case-Laws - AT : Approval granted u/s 153D of the Act should reflect due application of mind by the designated authority and not be a mechanical exercise. Perfunctory approval without scrutinizing seized documents and materials forming the foundation of assessment lacks legal sanctity. The obligation of granting approval acts as an inbuilt protection against arbitrary or unjust exercise of discretion by the assessing officer. Approval granted in a mechanical manner defeats the purpose of obtaining approval u/s 153D. The impugned assessment order, consequent to such inexplicable approval, lacks legitimacy and is non-est and a nullity, liable to be quashed.
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Assessment order invalid, notice u/s 153C mandatory post-search. 6-year period from seizure date. Assessee's grounds allowed.
Case-Laws - AT : Assessment order passed u/s 143(3) by issuing notice u/s 143(2) quashed as invalid. Assessment for relevant assessment year should have been carried out by issuing notice u/s 153C in case of search. Six-year period for initiating proceedings u/s 153C reckoned from date of recording satisfaction regarding possession of seized documents. Additional grounds raised by assessee allowed.
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Reassessment Proceedings Quashed: Officer Used Wrong Section, PCIT's Claims Flawed; Decision Favors Assessee.
Case-Laws - AT : In light of the search material, the course of action should have been taken u/s 153C instead of Section 148. The Assessing Officer erred in invoking reassessment proceedings u/s 147, rendering the subsequent actions without jurisdiction, as per the judgments in Sri Dinakara Suvarna and Badal Prakash Jindal. The revenue failed to prove that the Assessing Officer's order was erroneous and prejudicial, as the PCIT could not establish non-application of mind, considering the Assessing Officer had examined the order of Kapil Romanna. Mere allegation of passing an order without application of mind is insufficient to invoke Section 263. The PCIT's findings and observations are infirm and perverse. Consequently, invoking Section 263 is not a fit case, and the order passed under it is quashed, favoring the assessee.
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Court Upholds Reassessment for Bogus Purchases; Deletes Unexplained Loans u/s 69; Rejects Penny Stock Additions.
Case-Laws - AT : Reopening of assessment for bogus purchases was upheld as the Assessing Officer had credible information of money laundering and foreign outward remittances by entities with whom the assessee had transactions. Estimation of income from bogus purchases was sustained at 6% following judicial precedents. Addition u/s 69 for unexplained loans given was deleted as the advances were duly recorded in books of account. Addition of transactions in penny stocks was rejected as the investments were made from disclosed bank accounts and losses were incurred, following the reasoned decision of the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals).
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Cooperative Society's Interest Income from Deposits in Cooperative Banks Eligible for Deduction u/s 80P(2)(d.
Case-Laws - AT : Interest income earned by a cooperative society from deposits made with another cooperative bank is eligible for deduction u/s 80P(2)(d) of the Income Tax Act. The provision unambiguously allows deduction for interest income derived from investments with other cooperative societies. Therefore, the appellant cooperative society is entitled to claim deduction u/s 80P(2)(d) for the interest received from the Punjab State Cooperative Agricultural Development Bank. However, the excess contribution made by the appellant to the Gratuity Fund, over and above the permissible limit of 8.33% under the applicable rules, has been rightly disallowed and added back to its total income under the head "Income from Other Sources" by the tax authorities.
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Profit set off against business loss & unabsorbed depreciation, no taxable income. Reopening futile after SC ruling. Revision quashed.
Case-Laws - AT : Assessee's contention upheld that for AY 2019-20, profit is required to be set off against business loss of AY 2018-19 and remaining profit against brought forward unabsorbed depreciation from AY 2013-14 to AY 2018-19, resulting in no taxable income. Reopening u/s 263(1) merely for inquiries futile as carry forward of depreciation no longer debatable after Supreme Court ruling. Revision order u/s 263 quashed. Assessee's appeal allowed.
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Assessee Wins: Court Rules TDS Credit Denial Unjust Due to Deductor's Failure to Deposit Tax, Orders Further Verification.
Case-Laws - AT : Non-grant of credit of TDS due to deductor's failure to deposit tax with the government - HELD: No discrepancy found in assessee's documents. No independent verification done from deductor despite assessee providing complete details. Corresponding income declared by assessee. Denying TDS credit for deductor's failure to deposit tax contravenes Section 205. Once tax deducted, deductee cannot be penalized or demanded for TDS shortfall. Reliance placed on judicial pronouncements. CIT(A) erred in interpreting judgments. Inability to obtain Form 16A due to deductor's mischief cannot be basis to deny TDS credit or refund if assessee otherwise eligible. Issue decided in assessee's favor. Error in computing demand - issue allowed for statistical purposes for AO to verify facts and pass order accordingly.
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Taxpayer's Cash Deposits During Demonetization Accepted; Links Sales to Deposits with Supporting Documents.
Case-Laws - AT : Cash credit u/s 68 r.w.s. 115BBE - cash deposit during demonetization period - assessee's failure to maintain books of accounts u/s 44AD. Held that where exemption from maintaining books of accounts is provided u/s 44AD and presumptive tax @ 8% of gross receipts is basis for determining taxable income, assessee not obligated to explain individual cash deposit unless no nexus with gross receipts. Assessee holding drug license filed return declaring gross receipts u/s 44AD accepted by AO. Assessee to satisfy cash deposited has nexus with disclosed sales. Assessee showed cash sales in Oct-Nov 2016, cash deposited in Nov 2016, source reported to Revenue as per demonetization filings. Sales vouchers, cash book filed verifying deposits from sales. Cash receipts of Oct deposited in Nov satisfies proximity test, nexus established between sales and deposits. Epidemic, winter season resulting in increased sales not discarded. Sales reported, part of VAT filing/assessment, can't be disputed.
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Transfer Pricing & Lease Accounting: Key Adjustments, Disallowances, and Depreciation Guidelines Explained.
Case-Laws - AT : Transfer pricing adjustment on quasi-equity transaction like non-convertible cumulative redeemable preference shares necessitates benchmarking cost with international LIBOR rates considering risk factors. Lease accounting principles differ for operating and finance leases; depreciation allowable on assets under finance lease. Employees' share option scheme expenses deductible subject to fulfillment of conditions. Disallowance u/s 14A restricted to investments yielding exempt income. Section 14A disallowance excluded from book profit computation u/s 115JB. Cash deposits during demonetization by authorized forex dealer requires substantiation. Depreciation allowable on property despite temporary letting if used for business. Indexation benefit available while computing book profit u/s 115JB.
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Charitable Entity Reinstated: Tribunal Grants 12AB and 80G(5) Registrations After Overturning Initial Withdrawal.
Case-Laws - AT : Registration u/s 12A and approval u/s 80G(5) earlier granted were withdrawn citing grounds like money laundering, loan default, TDS shortfall, delayed PF/ESIC payments, non-accounting of retirement benefits, and GST non-payment on rent. Tribunal set aside cancellation of 12A registration. On re-application, provisional 12AB and 80G(5) registrations were granted. Loan default, though contractual breach, isn't non-compliance of law governing assessee's activities. TDS shortfall/delay has remedy under IT Act. PF/ESIC delays entail disallowance under IT Act. Non-provisioning for retirement benefits isn't statutory violation. Assessee was exempt from GST registration. No dispute on charitable objects/activities. Impugned order set aside, directing grant of 12AB and 80G(5) registrations.
Customs
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New Import Tax Breaks for Critical Minerals to Boost Industry Growth.
Notifications : This notification exempts or provides concessional rate of Basic Customs Duty (BCD) and exempts Social Welfare Surcharge (SWS) on import of critical minerals like natural graphite, natural sands, quartz, strontium sulphate, copper, cobalt, tin, tungsten, molybdenum, zirconium, hafnium, vanadium, niobium, tantalum, antimony, tellurium, silicon, selenium, alkali metals, rare-earth metals, silicon dioxide, potassium hydroxide, oxides/hydroxides of strontium, barium, cobalt, lithium, vanadium, germanium, molybdenum, antimony, cadmium, nickel chlorides/sulphates, potassium nitrates, lithium/strontium carbonates, beryllium/rhenium salts, rare-earth compounds, bismuth citrate, artificial graphite, unwrought tin, tungsten, molybdenum, tantalum, cobalt, bismuth, zirconium, antimony, beryllium, hafnium, rhenium, cadmium, gallium, germanium, indium, niobium, vanadium. Concessional BCD rate of 2.5% applies for natural graphite, quartz, silicon dioxide, artificial graphite.
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Health Cess Update: Amended Notification Adds New Entry for Exemptions on Imports by EOUs, STPs, EHTPs, and More.
Notifications : This notification seeks to amend Notification No. 8/2020-Customs dated 1st February 2020, to revise Health Cess on certain items. The Table in the principal notification is amended to insert a new entry, namely Notification No. 52/2003-Customs dated 31st March 2003, at serial number 2(ix). This entry is related to Exemption to specified goods imported on procured by EOU's, STP Units, EHTP units etc. for specified purposes
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Customs duty exemptions extended till Mar'29 for some electronics. New items added to exemption list. 15% duty on PCB assemblies, chargers & mobiles.
Notifications : Amends notifications related to customs duties on electronics including extending exemptions for certain goods till 31st March 2029, modifying list of exempted items, introducing new entries for components like fine barrier, met gold replenishers, fortron resin, oxygen free copper, nickel solutions, and prescribing 15% duty on printed circuit board assemblies, chargers/adapters, and cellular mobile phones.
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Reduced rates for imported gold, silver & platinum under specific schemes from 9.35% to 4.35% effective 24/07/2024.
Notifications : Notification amends previous notification providing concessional rate for imported gold, silver and platinum under specified schemes. Rates reduced from 9.35% to 4.35%. Comes into force on 24th July, 2024. Issued under Customs Act, 1962 by Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue, Government of India.
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Govt revises Agriculture Infrastructure & Development Cess (AIDC) on precious metals & other items. Rates reduced substantially.
Notifications : Notification amends notification No. 11/2021-Customs dated 1st February, 2021 to revise Agriculture Infrastructure and Development Cess (AIDC) on certain items. AIDC on Precious Metals reduced substantially. For Sl. No. 15A, entry in column (4) substituted with "1.4%". For Sl. No. 15B, 15C and 15E, entry substituted with "0.35%". For Sl. No. 15D, 15F and 15G, entry substituted with "1%". Notification comes into force on 24th July, 2024.
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Duty-free import of commercial samples: value limit hiked from Rs. 1L to Rs. 3L/consignment. Effective 24/07/2024.
Notifications : Customs notification amends condition for duty-free import of commercial samples, raising value limit from Rs.1 lakh to Rs.3 lakhs per consignment. Effective 24th July 2024. Issued under Customs Act 1962 in public interest. - See: Original Notification as updated.
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Customs rules amended for new exporters' subsidy review. Provisional assessment, guarantees allowed. Retrospective duty possible.
Notifications : Budget 2024 - Notification seeks to amend Customs Tariff (Identification, Assessment and Collection Countervailing Duty on Subsidized Articles and for Determination of Injury) Rules, 1995 to introduce New Shippers Review. It inserts Rule 23A allowing designated authority to periodically determine individual subsidy margins for exporters/producers not originally investigated, provided they are unrelated to those subject to countervailing duties. Central Government shall not levy duties during review period but may resort to provisional assessment and seek guarantees. Determined subsidy may lead to retrospective duty from review initiation date. Duties for cooperative un-sampled exporters/producers may extend to new exporters/producers.
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Order Overturned for Ignoring Key Arguments; New Hearing Set to Ensure Fairness and Detailed Justification.
Case-Laws - HC : The court examined whether the impugned order violated principles of natural justice by not considering contentions raised by the petitioner and being non-speaking regarding certain claim heads. The court held that quasi-judicial authorities must record reasons, though not as elaborate as court judgments. Upon examination, the court found that while reasons were specified for classification under CTH 8301, vital contentions regarding GRI and Explanatory Notes were not considered. To balance revenue interests, the court set aside the order on condition that the petitioner remits Rs. 1.75 crore, exceeding 5% of the disputed tax demand under this head, within four weeks. The assessing officer was directed to provide a reasonable opportunity, including a personal hearing, and issue a fresh order within three months after receiving the petitioner's reply.
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Company's Export Penalty Quashed for Breach of Natural Justice; Writ Petition Valid Despite Appeal Option.
Case-Laws - HC : Levy of penalty for non-fulfilment of export obligation under Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) authorizations was challenged. The specific case involved the petitioner/Company not being served with any show cause notice and no opportunity of personal hearing being given before passing the impugned order, resulting in violation of principles of natural justice. It was held that the appeal remedy is not a complete substitute for entertaining a Writ Petition under Article 226 of the Constitution when there is a violation of principles of natural justice. Since the petitioner was not served with any show cause notice and was not given an opportunity of personal hearing before passing the impugned order, the Writ Petition was maintainable. On this sole ground, the impugned order could not be sustained and was liable to be quashed. Consequently, the impugned order dated 24.08.2021 was quashed, and the Petition was allowed.
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Importer paid duty on apples via scrips, later paid cash+interest. No fraud/evasion proven. Penalty set aside. Goods not confiscatable.
Case-Laws - AT : Customs Act - Importer paid import duty on fresh apples through scrips issued under FMS, FPS, and VKGUY schemes, endorsed by officers. Subsequently, duty paid in cash with interest. Show cause notice issued invoking Section 28(4) for suppression and larger period of limitation unjustified. No culpability, fraud, or intent to evade duty proven. Penalty u/s 114A initially imposed Rs. 23 lakh, later enhanced to Rs. 1,72,61,089 set aside. Imported goods not liable for confiscation. Appeal allowed by CESTAT.
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Importers penalized for undervaluation & duty evasion racket. Forensic evidence exposed malpractice. Failed to justify waiver. Penalties upheld.
Case-Laws - AT : Penalty imposed u/s 112a(ii) of Customs Act for smuggling through mis-declaration and undervaluation. Extent of duty evasion uncertain but forensic evidence established undervaluation scale for past and current imports, benefiting importers and defrauding government dues. Appellants failed to justify penalty waiver. Digital mapping and forensic examination exposed racket. Considering facts, appellants' failure to discharge obligations, filing Bill of Entry based on unsigned invoices, penalty of Rs.4 lakh on company and Rs.1 lakh on individual upheld u/s 112(ii). Appeal disposed.
Bill
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Union Budget 2024: Finance (No.2) Act, Budget Speech, Economic Survey highlights & news.
News : This is a collection of documents related to the Union Budget 2024 and the Finance (No. 2) Bill and Act, 2024. It includes the full text of the Finance Act, Finance Bill, a chapter-wise breakdown, the Budget Speech, news related to the Budget, and highlights from the Economic Survey. The documents cover the current Budget 2024-25 and also reference the previous years' Budgets.
Budget
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3 schemes: 1-month wage for new workforce, incentives for manufacturing jobs & EPFO contribution reimbursement for 2 years.
News : Three employment-linked incentive schemes to be implemented as part of Prime Minister's package. First scheme provides one-month wage to new workforce entrants across formal sectors, benefiting 210 lakh youth. Second scheme incentivizes additional manufacturing employment linked to first-time employees, expected to benefit 30 lakh youth and employers. Third employer-focused scheme covers additional employment across sectors with government reimbursing EPFO contribution for 2 years, expected to incentivize 50 lakh additional jobs.
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GST Amendments Ease Tax Burden, Simplify Compliance, and Expand Benefits Across More Sectors.
News : GST, a success of vast proportions, decreased tax incidence on common man, reduced compliance burden and logistics cost for trade and industry. Amendments facilitated trade: Extra Neutral Alcohol for liquor manufacture kept out of central tax purview, Section 11A empowered government to regularize non-levy/short levy due to prevalent practices. Input tax credit time limit relaxed, common time limit for issuance of demand notices/orders provided. Time limit to avail reduced penalty by paying demanded tax/interest increased from 30 to 60 days. Pre-deposit for appeals reduced. Time limit for filing appeals before Appellate Tribunal modified. Government empowered to notify GST Appellate Tribunal for anti-profiteering cases. Tax structure simplified, rationalized, expanded to remaining sectors to multiply GST benefits.
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Income Tax reforms: Simplification, digitalization, dispute resolution scheme. TDS rationalization, higher appeal limits. STT hike, buyback tax.
News : Comprehensive review of Income-Tax Act, 1961 in six months proposed for simplification. All tax services to be digitalized and made paperless in two years. Vivad se Vishwas Scheme, 2024 announced to resolve pending income tax disputes. Reassessment period reduced, time limit for search cases curtailed. Merger of tax exemption regimes for charities, rationalization of TDS rates proposed. Monetary limits for filing appeals increased. Security Transaction Tax on futures/options hiked, income on buyback of shares to be taxed. Revenue forgone Rs. 37,000 crore, mobilized Rs. 30,000 crore.
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Capital gains tax: 20% on short-term gains, 12.5% on long-term gains. Higher exemption limit for long-term gains on financial assets.
News : Capital gains taxation streamlined with short-term gains on certain financial assets attracting 20% tax and long-term gains on all assets attracting 12.5% tax. Exemption limit for long-term capital gains on financial assets increased from Rs. 1 lakh to Rs. 1.25 lakh per annum. Listed financial assets held for over a year classified as long-term, unlisted financial assets and non-financial assets require two-year holding period. Unlisted bonds, debentures, debt mutual funds, and market-linked debentures taxed at applicable rates regardless of holding duration.
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Customs Duty Reforms: Boosting Local Manufacturing, Cutting Mobile Phone Duties, and Exempting Critical Minerals & Renewable Energy Inputs.
News : Customs duty reforms aim to boost domestic manufacturing, deepen local value addition, enhance export competitiveness, and simplify taxation while prioritizing public interest. Exemptions granted on 25 critical minerals, three cancer drugs, and inputs for seafood, leather, and textile sectors. Duty reduced on mobile phones, chargers, and components to 15%. Renewable energy sector supported through duty exemptions on capital goods for solar cell manufacturing. Duty rationalized for gold, silver, platinum, ferro nickel, and blister copper to enhance domestic value addition. Comprehensive review of customs duty structure planned for rationalization and simplification.
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Income tax relief for salaried & pensioners under new regime. Higher std deduction & family pension deduction. Revised tax slabs.
News : Income tax relief proposed for salaried individuals and pensioners opting for new tax regime. Standard deduction for salaried employees increased from Rs. 50,000 to Rs. 75,000. Deduction on family pension for pensioners enhanced from Rs. 15,000 to Rs. 25,000. Revised tax rate structure with rebate up to Rs. 7 lakh income. Salaried employee to save up to Rs. 17,500 annually.
Indian Laws
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Speedy trial a must; bail can't be denied solely on serious charges. Courts to uphold Article 21 over restrictive laws.
Case-Laws - SC : The court held that an accused is entitled to a speedy trial, and if the trial gets prolonged, bail cannot be denied solely on the ground of serious charges. The right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution is sacrosanct, and a constitutional court cannot be restrained from granting bail due to restrictive statutory provisions if it finds the accused's rights have been infringed. Even in interpreting stringent penal statutes, a court must lean towards constitutionalism and the rule of law, which includes liberty. In the given case, the appellant was directed to be released on bail, and the impugned order was set aside.
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Criminal case quashed due to complainant's financial inability despite arbitration clause. Dispute arose from work delay, GST impact.
Case-Laws - SC : Quashing of criminal proceedings u/s 156(3) of Cr.P.C. was ordered as the complainant admitted inability to perform work due to financial condition, despite agreement containing arbitration clause and ongoing arbitration proceedings between parties. The dispute arose when complainant failed to complete work within stipulated time, leading to show cause notice. Complainant's response acknowledged stoppage of construction activities due to financial constraints caused by GST imposition and other hindrances, requesting settlement of accounts. The court held it to be a civil dispute arising out of contract, quashed impugned High Court order(s), and allowed appeals u/s 482 Cr.P.C.
Service Tax
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Tour Operator Services Must Involve Tour Planning with Permitted Transport; Standalone Hotel Stays Not Included.
Case-Laws - AT : Tour operator service definition requires primary engagement of planning, scheduling, organizing tours by mode of transport covered by permit under Motor Vehicles Act, 1988; standalone hotel accommodation arrangement cannot be classified as tour operator service. Hotel accommodation service was brought under service tax net from 01.05.2011; prior non-taxability and double taxation avoidance principle discussed. Extended period limitation invoked erroneously as facts were known; when service tax itself not leviable, extended period cannot be invoked. Commissioner's order set aside; appeal allowed.
Case Laws:
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GST
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2024 (7) TMI 1162
Challenge to assessment order - part -B of the e- way bill was not duly filled - respondent did not submit any reply to the SCN - HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute that the goods in question was intercepted and same was detained on the ground that the e-way bill was not duly filled as required under the Act and after giving due notice to the respondent, the order was passed specifically mentioning therein that there was an intent to avoid the payment of tax. Once the authorities have recorded a finding of fact that there was an intent to avoid the payment of tax, the appellate authority was duty bound to reverse the said finding of fact but only a reference of the judgment passed by this Court in the case of M/S RAJ IRON BUILDING MATERIALS VERSUS UNION OF INDIA THRU ITS SECY. 3 OTHERS [ 2018 (1) TMI 949 - ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT] has been given while allowing the appeal, thus, the appellate authority had failed to record any cogent reason as to how the said judgement was applicable in the facts of the present case. The appellate authority has neither recorded any specific finding of fact in order to reverse the finding that there was no intent to avoid the payment of tax, nor recorded any reason that the said case law relied upon was applicable in the facts of the present case. In such circumstance, the impugned order cannot be sustained in the eyes of law. Petition allowed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1161
Challenge to order passed under Section 74 (9) of the West Bengal GST/CGST Act, 2017 - order by Proper Officer, passed subsequent to the demise of the registered taxpayer - HELD THAT:- Admittedly, in this case it would transpire that a show cause notice had been issued on the registered taxpayer. The registered taxpayer had also duly responded to the said show cause notice. Records would also reveal that from the order passed under Section 74 (9) of the said Act, it would transpire that an opportunity of hearing was also afforded to the registered taxpayer on 7th February, 2024. The order passed by the Proper Officer under Section 74 (9) of the said Act dated 13th March, 2024, which had been passed subsequent to the demise of the registered taxpayer, is unenforceable and has to be declared as such. The order passed by the Proper Officer on 13th March, 2024 stands set aside - petition disposed off.
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2024 (7) TMI 1160
Refund of GST claim under Inverted Duty Structure - applicability of CBEC Circular No.135/05/2020-GST - HELD THAT:- The provisions of the GST enactments being applicable pan India, the Department cannot take a different stand and such stand would be contrary to the ratio of the Hon ble Supreme Court in KUSUM INGOTS ALLOYS LTD. VERSUS UNION OF INDIA [ 2004 (4) TMI 342 - SUPREME COURT] . Therefore, the impugned order denying the benefit of the refund on account of the Inverted Duty Structure to the petitioner is unsustainable. The impugned order is set aside and the case is remitted back to the respondent to pass a fresh order in the light of the above mentioned orders santioning for the refund to the petitioner. This exercise shall be completed within a period of three months from the date of receipt of a copy of this order. Petition allowed by way of remand.
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2024 (7) TMI 1159
Violation of principle sof natural justice - petitioner s contentions were not taken into account - mismatch between the petitioner s GSTR 3B returns and the auto populated GSTR 2A - HELD THAT:- The third respondent did not discuss the petitioner s explanation for classifying it as a farm tractor or record reasons for rejecting such explanation. As regards the ITC mismatch issue, in the petitioner s reply, the petitioner refers to the issuance of invoices after the end of the financial year. On this issue, the third respondent records that the petitioner had stated that ITC matching was not a mandatory requirement for the period July 2017 to March 2019. This was not the contention of the petitioner in the reply. Thus, on both these issues, the petitioner s contentions were not dealt with in the impugned order. For such reason, a remand is necessary. The impugned order dated 24.04.2024 is partly set aside only insofar as the ITC mismatch issue and the rate of tax difference / classification issue are concerned. Consequently, the third respondent is directed to provide a reasonable opportunity to the petitioner, including a personal hearing, and thereafter issue a fresh order within three months from the date of receipt of a copy of this order. Petition disposed off.
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2024 (7) TMI 1158
Violation of principles of natural justice - SCN was not communicated through any other mode - petitioner was unaware of proceedings and could not participate in the same - adjudications are challenged primarily on the ground of non-issuance of notice in Form ASMT 10 - what is the consequence of non-compliance? - Does it vitiate the subsequent adjudication either under Sections 73 or 74? - HELD THAT:- he factual question as to whether the respective petitioner s returns were selected for scrutiny under Section 61 has limited significance. This contention was advanced on the basis that the subject description in the impugned order refers to scrutiny of returns and the discovery of discrepancies. On examining the preceding show cause notice, there is no reference to scrutiny under Section 61. Instead, data from the GSTR-01 and GSTR-3B returns are set out to indicate the mismatch. From the material on record, it is not possible to record a definitive conclusion that the petitioner s returns were selected for scrutiny under Section 61. In any event, nothing turns on the answer because such scrutiny was not the foundation for adjudication under Section 73. Both the show cause notice and the impugned order refer expressly to a scrutiny under Section 61 and to discrepancies being noticed. Thus, the two conditions necessary to trigger the obligation to issue the ASMT-10 notice were fulfilled in this case. As a consequence of not issuing the ASMT-10 notice, any conclusions drawn in course of scrutiny would stand vitiated and cannot be the basis for adjudication. In this case, the show cause notice specifies the outward supply value from the petitioner s GSTR-3B returns and the purchase value as reflected in the auto-populated GSTR-2A. Since the petitioner was provided an opportunity to show cause, it cannot be said that the adjudication was based only on the scrutiny under Section 61 or that the petitioner was prejudiced. The tax proposal was confirmed because the tax payer failed to reply. Since the petitioner asserted that such failure to participate was on account of not being aware of proceedings, the interest of justice warrants that an opportunity be provided to the petitioner to contest the tax demand on merits by putting the petitioner on terms. The impugned assessment order dated 11.04.2024 in W.P.No.13507 of 2024 is set aside on condition that the petitioner remits 10% of the disputed tax demand within fifteen days from the date of receipt of a copy of this order. Within the said period, the petitioner is permitted to submit a reply to the show cause notice - The impugned assessment order dated 23.12.2023 in W.P.No.15330 of 2024 is aside aside by remanding the matter for reconsideration - Petition disposed off.
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2024 (7) TMI 1157
Maintainability of appeal - time limitation - Cancellation of GST registration of petitioner - petitioner preferred an appeal against the impugned cancellation order before the Appellate Authority on 09.09.2022, however the same was not entertained as it was filed after the expiry of the stipulated period for filling such appeals - HELD THAT:- It is material to note that the GST registration of the petitioner was cancelled by the impugned cancellation order with retrospective effect, however, no adverse action to the said effect was proposed in the impugned SCN. The impugned cancellation order also does not set out any reason for cancelling the petitioner s GST registration with retrospective effect. It is relevant to note that the Supreme Court in IN RE: COGNIZANCE FOR EXTENSION OF LIMITATION [ 2022 (1) TMI 385 - SC ORDER] had condoned the delay in cases where the period of limitation expired prior to 28.02.2022. It is considered apposite to set aside the impugned order and remand the matter to the Appellate Authority to decide the petitioner s appeal afresh on merits, uninfluenced by the question of delay, after affording an opportunity of personal hearing to the petitioner - petition disposed off by way of remand.
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2024 (7) TMI 1156
Cancellation of registration of the petitioner - order passed without assigning any reasons - time limittaion - HELD THAT:- The Co-ordinate Bench of this Court in case of AGGARWAL DYEING AND PRINTING WORKS VERSUS STATE OF GUJARAT 2 OTHER (S) [ 2022 (4) TMI 864 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] has issued the guidelines to the respondent-authorities by holding that Our concern is that on account of procedural lapses, the High Court should not be flooded with writ applications. The procedural aspects should be looked into by the authority concerned very scrupulously and deligently. Why unnecessarily give any dealer a chance to make a complaint before this Court when it could have been easily avoided by the department. The impugned orders passed by the appellate authority as well as the Assessing Officer are hereby quashed and set aside and the matter is remanded back to the Assessing Officer to issue fresh show cause notice with particulars of reasons incorporated with details and thereafter to provide reasonable opportunity of hearing to the writ applicants, and to pass appropriate speaking orders on merits. Petition disposed off.
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2024 (7) TMI 1155
Challenge to assessment order - impugned order records that the petitioner has neither replied to the show cause notice nor has appeared during personal hearings - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- Considering the fact that the petitioner has opportunity to request the second respondent to exercise the discretion under Section 161 of the GST Act, 2017, the Court is of the view that the impugned order is unsustainable in the manner, in which, it has been passed. Under these circumstances, the impugned order is quashed and the case is remitted back to the second respondent to pass fresh orders on merits and in accordance with law. Petition disposed off by way of remand.
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2024 (7) TMI 1154
Maintainability of appeal - time limitation - pre-deposit - appeal rejected on the ground that they had been filed beyond time and also that the pre-deposit of 10% of the disputed tax, required to be paid under Section 107 of the Central Goods and Services Act, 2017, had not been paid - HELD THAT:- The Hon ble Division Bench after noticing Rule 108 (1) of the AP GST Rules, 2017, stipulating the method of pre-deposit as well as the provisions of Section 107 (1) of the AP GST Act which requires pre-deposit to be made under GST APL-01 had directed the Appellate Authority to consider the question of whether there was a technical difficulty in making payment under APL-01 and to pass orders thereafter. This would mean that the Appellate Authority was required to ascertain whether there was a technical glitch which shut out the petitioners from making the necessary pre-deposits and to accept the payment made under DRC-03 as payment under APL-01. However, the Appellate Authority, without going into the question as to whether there was a technical glitch or not, had simply decided that, payment made under a wrong head is not sufficient compliance of the requirements of Rule 108 of the AP GST Rules r/w Section 107 of the AP GST Act. The matters are remanded back to the 2nd respondent-Appellate Authority for fresh consideration - petition allowed by way of remand.
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2024 (7) TMI 1153
Levy of penalty - transportation of goods - violation of Rule 129 of the SGST Rules, 2017 - HELD THAT:- The power of detention as well as seizure can be exercised only when the goods were not accompanying with the genuine documents provided under the Act. The genuineness of the documents has not been disputed at any stage. Observation/allegation has been made that at the time of interception / detention of the goods in question, the driver of the vehicle has only produced tax invoice and e-way bill dated 11.07.2023 and 13.07.2023, but none of the documents as prescribed under the Act has been referred or even brought on record before this Court in support of the said contention. Once the documents accompanying the goods were found to be genuine the goods ought not be have been seized. The impugned order dated 06.03.2024 cannot be sustained in the eyes of law and is hereby quashed - petition allowed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1152
Input tax credit - Time limitation - period July 2017 to March 2019 - Section 6(2)(b) of the CGST Act and RGST Act 2017 - HELD THAT:- Taking into consideration the submissions of learned counsel for the petitioner that in respect of the same transaction, an ITC claim of the petitioner pertaining to the assessment period July 2017 to March 2019, based on similar set of transactions, already a notice under Section 73 of the CGST Act 2017 has been issued by Central Goods and Services Tax Authorities, subsequent notice by the State Authorities under RGST Act 2017 in respect of the same matter is barred under Section 6(2)(b) of the CGST Act and RGST Act 2017, respondent Nos.2,3 4 are restrained from proceedings further pursuant to impugned show cause notice dated 31.01.2024. Issue notice to respondent Nos.2,3 4 on payment of PF and notice within one week, returnable within three weeks.
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2024 (7) TMI 1151
Irregular availment of ITC on inward supplies received from registered persons during the period 2018-19 and 2019-20 - whether the petitioner was required to pay late fee for delayed filing of annual returns? - HELD THAT:- Since the petitioner has already filed reply to the show cause notice, this Court would not like to entertain the present writ petition filed against the show cause notice. It is for the competent authority to decide the issue. Once the issue has been decided, the petitioner will have remedy as provided under the statute. The show cause notice issued is neither without jurisdiction nor against law. This Court would not like to entertain the present writ petition, which is hereby dismissed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1150
Seeking direction upon the respondents authority concerned to bear the additional tax liability for execution of subsisting Government contracts either awarded in the pre-GST regime or in the post GST regime without updating the Schedule of Rates (SOR) incorporating the applicable GST while preparing Bill of Quantities (BOQ) for inviting the bids - HED THAT:- This writ petition is disposed of by giving liberty to the petitioner to file appropriate representation, before the Additional Chief Secretary, Finance Department, Government of West Bengal within four weeks from date. On receipt of such representation the Additional Chief Secretary, Finance Department shall take a final decision within four months from the date of receipt of such representation after consulting with all other relevant departments concerned.
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2024 (7) TMI 1149
Levy of service tax on the amount of salaries and perquisites relating to expats under Manpower Recruitment or Supply Agency Service - HELD THAT:- Since the petitioners have already represented and have taken time as such before the Revenue on 20.11.2023 that they are in the process of collating the documents to prepare a comprehensive response, the necessary response be filed by 15.01.2024. The respondents shall then take a decision on the same. In case any adverse order is passed against the petitioners during the pendency of the writ petition, the respondents shall not take any coercive steps to recover the amount. Adjourned to 13.02.2024.
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2024 (7) TMI 1148
Levy of GST or exempt from GST - amount paid to the Forest department as Abhivahan permission shulk - Scope of continuous supply of service u/s 2 (33) of the CGST Act 2017. Whether the amount paid to the Forest Department as Abhivahan Permission Shulk is liable to be taxed under GST or exempt as per SI. No. 4 and 5 of the Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate), dated 28.06.2017? - HELD THAT:- The Abhivahan Shulk as collected by the Chhattisgarh Forest Department from the appellant is in lieu of granting permission for movement of Forest produce viz. coal from the forest area of Chhattisgarh state. The permit charges collected by forest department is used by (he forest officials keep a watch on the mining activity and also to assess the quantity and type of mineral being quarried to carry out survey and also keep constant watch on the movement of the produce, and is not related to Urban forestry, protection of the environment and promotion of the ecological aspect or Social forestry or farm forestry . Therefore, Abhivahan Shulk has neither any connection with Urban forestry, protection of the environment and promotion of the ecological aspect [functions entrusted and as specified under SI. No. 8 to municipalities in the Eleventh Schedule read with Article 243W oi the Constitution of India] nor with Social forestry and farm forestry [functions entrusted and as specified under SI No 6 to Panchayats in the twelfth Schedule read with Article 243G of the Constitution of India] - the said Abhivahan permission shulk paid by the appellant is not eligible for NII. rate of GST, as provided under SI No. 4 5 of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate), dated 28.06.2017. Whether each transaction of Abhivahan Shulk, being less than Rs. 5000/- per transaction, is exempt under SI. No. 9 of the Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate), dated 28.06.2017, as it is not covered by the definition of continuous supply of service u/s 2 (33) of the CGST Act 2017? - HELD THAT:- The appellant is a power generating company. The main raw material for generation of power is coal. The coal mines are situated in a forest area, and the appellant is paying Transit Fees or Abhivahan Shulk throughout the year on recurring basis to the Forest Department for issuance of transit pass whenever the Coal is cleared from the forest area, This is not a single transaction rather it s a supply of the entire coal regularly to their power plants from the said coal block located in the forest and for which permission is granted by the Forest department. It is just for administrative convenience that vehicle wise Abhivahan Permission Shulk or Transit Fee is being paid by the applicant to the Forest Department Therefore, the said service squarely falls under the category of supply of continuous service as per Section 2 (33) of CGST Act. 2017. The applicant is not eligible for exemption as provided under SI. No. 9 of Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate), dated 28.06.2017, as the Abhivahan Permission Shulk paid to the forest department is more than five thousand rupees in a financial year.
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Income Tax
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2024 (7) TMI 1147
Delay in filling SLP - TDS u/s 195 - scope of amendment of Finance Act, 2010 in section 9 - Liability to deduct tax on payments made on sub-contract work done - outsourcing a portion of on-site work to its subsidiary in China - default u/s 201(1) 201(1A) - as decided by HC [ 2023 (6) TMI 773 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] person mentioned in section 195 of the Income Tax Act cannot be expected to do the impossible, namely, to apply the expanded definition of royalty inserted by explanation 4 to section 9(1)(vi) of the Income Tax Act, for the assessment years in question, at a time when such explanation was not actually and factually in the statute. HELD THAT:- There is a gross delay of 296 days in filing this Special Leave Petition. Even otherwise, we do not find any merit in the matter. Special Leave Petition is dismissed both on the ground of delay as well as on merits.
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2024 (7) TMI 1146
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - Notice issued after the expiry of four years - gain on sale of land - treating the land in question as stock in trade or capital asset - As decided by HC 2023 (9) TMI 437 - BOMBAY HIGH COURT] there was no failure to disclose any material fact, on that ground alone the notice issued u/s 148 has to be quashed - HELD THAT:- Following the order dated [ 2023 (11) TMI 291 - SC ORDER] passed by this Court in SLP, this Special Leave Petition is also dismissed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1145
Validity of reassessment proceeding u/s 147/148 - difference between lack of jurisdiction and irregular exercise of power/jurisdiction by the AO -reassessment triggered when the CBI search was made at others premises, not the assessee and certain documents were found at the place of one J.K. Jain - whether the AO has passed the final order in reassessment on the dictates/directions of the superior authority? - ITAT in its judgment has arrived to the finding considering various material available on record that the AO has passed the order against the assessee on the dictates of his superiors. HELD THAT:- It is quite pertinent to mention that how these proceedings against the assessee has been conducted the series of event started on 03.05.91 when the CBI has conducted the search in premises of J.K. Jain. After it the Income Tax Department in exercise of its power under Section 132A of the IT Act, called for these documents and material seized from the CBI. The assesee was asessesed at Bhilai, therefore, the said material was handed over to the AO sitting at Bhilai on 20.03.95. AO issued notice to assesee for reopening. The return of income was filled by the assesee on 06.06.95 however, the AO did not do anything till 20.12.95. On 20.12.95 the AO went to Delhi on receipt of some message of the DDIT (Inv.), amazingly the purpose of visit was for discussion about the case. The records of the proceedings clearly shows that the AO was taking instructions on each and every hearing and dictates was clearly given to him. Letter dated 30.01.96 which was written to the Commissioner of Income Tax, Central Revenue Building, Napier Town Jabalpur clearly shows that even the questionnaire was prepared on instruction of his superiors and same was even sent to Delhi for confirmation this clearly shows how far the AO was taking directions from his superior and not acted independently. In the said letter the AO has clearly written that though he has drafted the skeleton of the order but he want guidance of the higher authorities so that legal infirmity in the assessment can be taken care of these phrases speaks a dozen about how far the AO was conducting the proceedings independently and with open mind. Tribunal has given the detail account of the series of event which has various instances how these proceedings were influenced by the superior authorities sitting at Delhi and Jabalpur. The proceedings before the AO gets vitiated when he start discussing about the merits of the case or in which manner he should conduct the proceedings. As decided in M/S GREENWORLD CORPORATION AND M/S THE GREEN WORLD CORPORATION VERSUS ITO, PARWANOO ANR. [ 2009 (5) TMI 14 - SUPREME COURT] while making the orders of assessment the assessing officer shall be bound by the statutory circulars issued by CBDT but it is another thing to say that the assessing authority exercising quasi-judicial function keeping in view the scheme contained in the Act, would lose its independence to pass an independent order of assessment. AO has duty to act judicially and independently and its judgment cannot be controlled by the superior authority - The officers sitting at Delhi and Jabalpur has even interfered in the order especially the guidance has been sought by the AO to deal with the grounds raised by the assessee. Thus, the tribunal has rightly concluded that the AO has passed the order of reassessment on the dictates of the higher authorities sitting at Delhi and Jabalpur. Once having held that the reassessment started at the dictation of the higher authorities and thereafter, during reassessment process too continuous instructions were imparted and even the AO obtained instructions, therefore, the end result would be same as the bias would exist. Decision of reassessment, reassessment thereafter is at the dictation of higher authorities then the order itself would be outcome of bias and authority having original jurisdiction would not be able to come to save them under the shell. The entirety of facts cannot be fragmented in peace meal and entire state of affairs are to be considered as a whole. Even otherwise the court cannot condone the delay of the proceedings which is not before it as limitation for framing of reassessment order section 147/143 (3) which, in terms of section 153 of the Act (as then applicable) lapsed on 31.03.1997. Decided in favour of assessee.
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2024 (7) TMI 1144
Reopening of assessment u/s 147 - mere change of opinion - differential amount i.e. difference between the amounts reflected in the balance-sheet and income offered in the profit and loss account has escaped assessment - HELD THAT:- It is apt to take note of the admitted fact that the case of the petitioner was selected for scrutiny and the then AO after having considered details furnished by the petitioner such as, export sale as well as benefit in the form of duty drawback, duty of customs or central excise repaid and repayable, cash assistance, vide order, framed the assessment under the provision of section 143 (3) meaning thereby, in our view, AO was in possession with all the relevant material including the profit and loss account as well as the balance-sheet at the time when the assessment order was framed u/s 143 (3) of the Act. Therefore, Revenue was well within their possession of all the relevant materials and thereby it is difficult to hold that the petitioner has not fully and truly disclosed the material facts. When the then AO has framed the assessment under the provisions of section 143 (3) of the Act, all the documents were furnished by the petitioner and therefore now in absence of any new and/or tangible material, keeping in mind the contents of the reasons recorded if notice u/s 148 is issued on the same material, in our considered opinion, the same is nothing but the mere change of opinion which is not permissible in eye of law. In absence of failure on the part of the petitioner to disclose fully and truly all material facts, the notice u/s 148 is issued beyond the period of four years the same is not even otherwise permissible. Assessee appeal allowed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1143
Validity of Reopening of assessment - legality of notice u/s 148 and the order rejecting objections - Revenue has sought to reopen the assessment on the sole basis that the profit being the difference between purchase and sale of commodities over national multi commodities exchange, though derived but not reflected in the return of income - HELD THAT:- As per the undisputed fact that the petitioner has already submitted a contract note dated 01.10.2011 issued by Star Commodities with regard to the transaction in which it is alleged that the income has escaped assessment. Considering the ledger account of Star Commodities produced, the very income has already been reflected. Further, on perusal it has been found that the Bank Statement of the Union Bank of India for the period between 01.04.2011 to 31.03.2012 wherein the said amount has been reflected. Keeping in mind the aforesaid material on record, in our considered opinion, the entire base of reopening that income escaped assessment is not correct. The reasons so recorded and the notice u/s 148 is nothing but a sheer non application of mind by the Revenue. Thus, we therefor hold that a notice u/s 148 of the Act cannot be said to be legal in the eye of law. Decided in favour of assessee.
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2024 (7) TMI 1142
Nature of expenditure - expenses on power and fuel and lease rent for machines taken on hire - revenue u/s capital expenditure - ITAT held it capital expenditure incurred by the assessee in connection with the establishment of the cement manufacturing unit at Bilaspur - CIT(A) treated the same as revenue expenditure. HELD THAT:- As perused the orders passed by this Court, we note that in fact for AY 1985-86 Division Bench of this Court dismissing the revenue s appeal, observed that the Tribunal had passed an order based on the order passed by the Tribunal in regard to the earlier assessment year 1984-85 and for the assessment year 1985-86, the revenue was unable to state whether the Revenue had preferred any appeal against the said order or had filed any reference against the same. In this view of the matter, the Division Bench observed that as the issue involved was purely based on a finding of fact, no substantial question of law has arisen and accordingly dismissed the appeal. Principle of consistency - We, find much substance in the contentions as urged on behalf of the assessee that the present proceedings would stand covered by not only the position taken by the revenue for AY 1984-85 subject matter of M/s. Raymond Woollen Mills Ltd. decided by the Tribunal, but also by the subsequent orders passed by this Court, for assessment years as noted by us hereinabove. Supreme Court in Godrej and Boyce Manufacturing Company Ltd. [ 2017 (5) TMI 403 - SUPREME COURT] wherein the Supreme Court reiterated the principles when it was observed that the need for consistency and certainty and existence of strong and compelling reasons for a departure from a settled position has to be spelt out, which conspicuously was stated to be absent in the case in hand before the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court reitereated the principles as laid down in M/s. Radhasoami Satsang, Saomi Bagh, Agra [ 1991 (11) TMI 2 - SUPREME COURT] wherein as held observed that strictly speaking res judicata does not apply to income tax proceedings and that each assessment year being a unit, what is decided in one year may not apply in the following year but where a fundamental aspect permeating through the different assessment years has been found, as a fact one way or the other, and parties have allowed that position to be sustained by not challenging the order, it would not at all be appropriate to allow the position to be changed in a subsequent year. Assessee appeal allowed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1141
Interest u/s 234A, 234B and 234C post Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process - as argued Tribunal which had authorised the Assessing Officer only to verify the inclusion of income tax due in the IRP, has without giving any notice to the Assessee unilaterally charged interest u/s 234A, 234B and 234C resulting in an enhancement of demand - HELD THAT:- In Ghanashyam Mishra Sons Pvt. Ltd. vs. Edelweiss Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd. Ors. [ 2021 (4) TMI 613 - SUPREME COURT ] and M/S. Ruchi Soya Industries Ltd. v. Union Of India Ors. [ 2022 (3) TMI 60 - SUPREME COURT ] as held that once a resolution plan is duly approved by the adjudicating authority under Section 31(1), the claims as provided in the resolution plan shall stand frozen and will be binding on the corporate debtor and its employees, members, creditors, including the Central Government, any State Government or any local authority, guarantors and other stakeholders. On the date of approval of resolution plan by the adjudicating authority, all such claims, which are not a part of resolution plan, shall stand extinguished and no person will be entitled to initiate or continue any proceedings in respect to a claim, which is not part of the resolution plan The amount has stood frozen by the operation of moratorium under IBC and also not part of the Resolution Plan. Hence, no claim can be made against the Petitioner. The charge of Interest amounting to Rs. 9,32,218.00 under section 234A, Rs. 10,79,21,201.00 under section 234B, Rs. 44,71,790.00 under Section 234C of the Income Tax Act does not survive. The order passed under Section 254 of the Income Tax Act giving effect to the order of the ITAT and the Notice of Demand u/s 156 are hereby quashed and the Petitioner be refunded an amount which was paid pertaing to the Assessment Year 2010-11.
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2024 (7) TMI 1140
Estimation of income/NP - Determination of net profit in liquor trade - HELD THAT:- Insofar as the estimate is concerned AO placed reliance on the decision of M/s. Kanakadurga Wines [ 2012 (5) TMI 797 - ITAT HYDERABAD ] and other cases. As observed by the Hon ble High Court, the profit percentage to be adopted differs from case to case. Apart from that fact, subsequently the privilege fees is introduced and according to the learned AR it reduced the profit margin. We are of the considered opinion that the estimate of net profit of the assessee at 3% of the turnover would meet the ends of justice. We accordingly direct the AO to recompute the income of the assessee. Appeal of assessee allowed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1139
Refund on account of excess DDT - payments by way of DDT were paid by the assessee company on distribution of dividend - HELD THAT:- It is the case of the assessee that while the assessee has paid DDT u/s 115-O of the Act at applicable rate under the Act which is 12.5% + surcharge + cess for A.Ys. 2005-06 and 2006-07 and 15% + surcharge + cess for remaining years in appeal, the assessee in terms of Article 10(2)(a) of DTAA between India and Mauritius is liable to pay lower rate of tax, i.e. 5% on dividend payable to the shareholder (tax resident of Mauritius) and consequently assessee is entitled to refund of excess tax collected by the revenue on dividend distributed and paid to the Holding company (a tax resident of Mauritius). Assessee has thus alleged that the Revenue Authorities have wrongfully retained excess tax paid on remittance of dividend and thus wrongfully denied the benefit of treaty available to the assessee. We straightaway take note of the special bench decision in the case of Total Oil [ 2023 (4) TMI 988 - ITAT MUMBAI (SB)] In that case, the assessee M/s Total Oil India Private Ltd., an Indian Co., declared/paid dividend for AY 2016-17. One of the shareholders to whom dividend was to be paid was a Non Resident (Tax resident of France). Similar plea was raised in that case that the rate at which tax under 115-O of the Act had to be paid could not be more than the rate at which dividend could be taxed in the hands of the Non Resident shareholder in India under the DTAA between India and France as the rate of tax prescribed in the DTAA is generally less than the rate prescribed in section 115-O. On nuanced analysis, the Special bench formed a view that dividend declared by a domestic company to a non resident should be taxed at the rate given u/s 115-O and not the beneficial rates given under DTAA for Non Residents unless the contracting state to which the treaty intends to extend the treaty protection to the domestic company. It thus observed that wherever the Contracting States to a tax treaty intend to extend the treaty protection to the domestic company paying dividend distribution tax, only then, the domestic company can claim benefit of the DTAA, if any. No such protection has been shown to be extended in the instant case. The issue is thus squarely covered in favour of the revenue and against the assessee. In the instant case, the treaty benefit is thus not available in relation to provisions of 115-O of the Act. The provisions of section 237 is thus of no avail. Appeals of the Assessee are thus dismissed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1138
Estimation of income - bogus purchases - HELD THAT:- After detailed discussion of the case and the legal position as well as precedents on the subject issue, the Tribunal sustained addition @ 6% of the bogus purchases. The facts of the present appeal are similar and hence, it is squarely covered by the order of the Tribunal in the case of Pankaj K. Choudhary [ 2021 (10) TMI 653 - ITAT SURAT] Therefore, following the above decisions, we restrict the disallowance to 6% of the disputed bogus purchase. Decided in favour of assessee partly.
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2024 (7) TMI 1137
Disallowance of financial expenses in proportion of purchase from bogus companies - AO disallowed the expenditure to the extent of paper transaction not backed by actual business - HELD THAT:- CIT(A) had disallowed the loss on circular transaction holding it to be artificial and managed and losses are fabricated, but on the other hand, he found that the financial charges to be incurred for the purpose of business, hence, to be allowed. The assessee has pleaded that the funds were required for working capital. But in case of paper transaction, there is no requirement of capital at all because there was neither any purchase nor was there any sale. However, the assessee has adopted this route to raise higher finance from the circular transaction. Since the discounting charges on letter of credits have been paid to bank, the genuinity is sacrosanct. The funds so raised have been used to augment the working capital required for delivery based business. The assessee had used the platform of circular trading to draw higher finance from the bank. There is no instance of any diversion of funds as pointed out by the AO. The funds from the discounted letter of credits are used for the purpose of business and is allowable under section 36(1)(iii) of the Act. There is no ground to interfere with the conclusions of CIT(A). Hence, the ground raised by the Revenue is dismissed. Assessment u/s 153A - Addition u/s 68 - In this case, the addition is not based on any incriminating evidences as evident from the assessment order. All the transactions were reflected in regular books of account. No incriminating evidences were unearthed. Neither there is any statement u/s 132(4) nor any corroborative evidences which goes against the assessee. Accordingly, no addition is sustainable in the absence of any incriminating document. DR pleaded that addition of Rs. 4 crore may be confirmed as transactions were not genuine. He, however, failed to pinpoint any incriminating evidence upon which the additions were made. Thus, all the grounds raised by the Revenue are dismissed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1136
Validity of adjustments made in the intimation u/s 143(1) - period of limitation - Addition of payment of employees contribution to PF and ESIC beyond the due date - only objection of the assessee is that the decision of the Apex Court Checkmate Services Private Limited. [ 2022 (10) TMI 617 - SUPREME COURT] was applicable only in the case of scrutiny assessment and that no adjustment can be made on the basis of this decision while processing the return of income u/s 143(1) HELD THAT:- There is no dispute to the fact that return of the assessee for A.Y. 201920 was made with a refund claim. Thus, the extended time limit till 31.01.2024 was squarely applicable for processing the return of the assessee for this year. The return of the assessee was, in fact, processed on 31.03.2021, which was within the original extended time limit. Considering the fact that the CBDT had subsequently extended the time limit for processing the return till 31.01.2024; the intimation dated 31.03.2021, even though it was digitally signed and communicated on 01.04.2021, cannot be held as barred by limitation. Therefore, the legal ground raised by the assessee in this regard is rejected. Type of adjustment, as stipulated in the clauses (i) to (vi) of Section 143(1) - There is no dispute to the fact that any incorrect claim, if it was apparent from any information in the return, was liable for adjustment while processing the return. From the intimation sheet as sent by the CPC, it is found that the adjustment was categorically indicated. In fact, this annexure contains details of all the claims made by the assessee in the return of income and the computation as made by the CPC under Section 143(1) of the Act and the variance if any, is also indicated in respect of each item. Thus, the nature of adjustment as made by the CPC was very much reflected in the intimation. Further, the nature/type of adjust was also mentioned in the prior intimation sent to the assessee by the CPC, which is reproduced later in the order. In view of these facts, the ground as taken by the assessee is dismissed. No prior intimation given to the assessee before making the adjustment - There cannot be any doubt that the email ID account [email protected] on which this communication was sent belonged to the assessee and that the assessee was duly communicated about the adjustments before the processing of the return. In fact, the intimation dated 31.03.2021, which is subject matter of this appeal, was also sent on the same email ID [email protected] . Therefore the contention of the assessee that the email [email protected] was an unrelated email ID is not found correct. CPC had all along made all communication with the assessee on this email ID only. Hence, the contention that the prior intimation sent on this email was not legally valid can t be accepted. The intimation u/s 143(1) sent to the assessee on this email ID was well received by the assessee. So the earlier communication regarding proposed adjustments u/s 143(1)(a) of the Act before processing of the return of income for the A.Y. 2019-20 sent on this email ID was legally valid intimation. In fact the assessee has not come clean before us and has tried to misrepresent the facts. Decided against assessee.
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2024 (7) TMI 1135
Revision u/s 263 - disallowance of payment made to Life insurance Corporation of India ( LIC ) towards superannuation fund u/s 40A(9) - HELD THAT:- Tax Audit Report, in From 3CD, has mentioned that certain contribution made by the assessee would be disallowable u/s 40A(9). This was, in fact, one of the reasons to reopen the case of the assessee. In the queries raised by AO during re-assessment proceedings, It was objected to by AO that the bank statement furnished by the assessee do not identify the name of the holder of the bank account or bank number. The contribution receipts were in the name of M/s Invensys India Pvt. Ltd. and the same do not pertain to the assessee company. The evidences furnished by the assessee do not support the claim of the assessee. Assessee clarified that erstwhile name of the company was changed from M/s Invensys India Pvt. Ltd. to present name as evidenced by certificate of ROC showing name change of the assessee company. Assessee also furnished bank statement highlighting two payments out of four payments. AO chose not to make any addition / disallowance, in this regard. However, the proposal made by the Tax Auditor apparently has not been considered and the issue whether the funds were approved fund or not was not addressed. Therefore, it could be concluded that though a specific query was raised on the issue as flagged by revisionary authority, the same was not adjudicated by AO properly with full facts and with due application of mind as required. Firstly, AO overlooked the reporting made by Tax Auditor. Secondly, the assessee only furnished partial receipts in support of the claim. The issue whether the fund was approved fund was not examined / verified. Therefore, we would conclude that it was a case of inadequate enquiry which justifies invocation of revisionary powers u/s 263. AR, has submitted that the claim could alternatively be allowed on merits u/s 37(1). Reliance has been placed on certain decisions, in this regard allowing similar claim of the assessee. AR also submitted that fund went out of control of the assessee and therefore, the deduction thereof could be allowed to the assessee. Considering the same, we modify the directions given in the impugned order and direct Ld. AO to verify the claim of the assessee and examine deductibility of the expenditure. The assessee is directed to substantiate the same. All the issues are kept open. Our adjudication as aforesaid shall not be construed as any expression on the merits of the case.
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2024 (7) TMI 1134
Erroneous approval granted u/s 153D - addition made on account of seized jewellery treating the same as unexplained investment - HELD THAT:- Solemn object of entrusting the duty of Approval of assessment in search case is that the Additional CIT, with his experience and maturity of understanding should at least minimally scrutinize the seized documents and any other material forming the foundation of Assessment. It is elementary that whenever any statutory obligation is cast upon any statutory authority, such authority is required to discharge its obligation not mechanically, not even formally but after due application of mind. Thus, the obligation of granting Approval acts as an inbuilt protection to the taxpayer against arbitrary or unjust exercise of discretion by the AO. The approval granted u/s 153D of the Act should necessarily reflect due application of mind and if the same is subjected to judicial scrutiny, it should stand for itself and should be self-defending. There are long line of judicial precedents which provides guidance in applying the law in this regard. Approval granted by the superior authority in mechanical manner defeats the very purpose of obtaining approval u/s 153D of the Act. Such perfunctory approval has no legal sanctity in the eyes of the law. In the case of Serajuddin and Co [ 2023 (11) TMI 1254 - SC ORDER] dismissed the Appeal filed by the Department of Revenue against the order [ 2023 (3) TMI 785 - ORISSA HIGH COURT] wherein the Hon ble High Court had quashed the Assessment Order on the ground of inadequacy in procedure adopted for issuing approval u/s 153D of the Act by expressing discordant note on such mechanical exercise of responsibility placed on designated authority u/s 153D of the Act. Hence, considering the above facts and circumstances, we find considerable force in the plea raised by the Assessees in the Ground No. 1 of the Appeal which is against erroneous approval granted u/s 153D of the Act. In our opinion the approvals so granted under the shelter of section 153D does not pass the test of legitimacy. Thus, the impugned Assessment order in consequence to such inexplicable approval lacks legitimacy. The impugned assessment in captioned appeal is non-est and a nullity and hence liable to be quashed accordingly, the impugned assessment order and the order of the CIT(A) is hereby set aside by allowing Ground No. 1 of the Assessee.
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2024 (7) TMI 1133
Legal validity of the order u/s 143(3) - Period of limitation - reckoning of six years period - search was conducted for initiating proceeding u/s 153C - HELD THAT:- The date of recording of the satisfaction will be the deemed date for the possession of the seized documents, which is 30.06.2022 in the present case and the date of search and six years period would be reckoned from this date i.e. 30.06.2022. Therefore, there is merit in the submission of the assessee that the assessment year relevant for previous year in which search was conducted in the case of the assessee will be AY 2023-24 and the six assessment years immediately preceding the assessment year relevant for the previous year in which search was conducted for initiating proceeding u/s 153C of the Act will be AY 2018-19 to 2022-23. Therefore, it is held that in the present case, the assessment for AY 2021-22 should have been carried out by issuing notice u/s 153C of the Act and not u/s 143(2) of the Act as done by the AO in this case. No other contrary facts or decision was brought on record by the Ld. DR Therefore, it is held that the assessment order dated 29.12.2022 passed u/s 143(3) of the Act by the issuance of notice u/s 143(2) of the Act dated 30.06.2022 is bad in law and hence the notice u/s 143(2) of the Act, dated 30.06.2022 and the consequent assessment order dated 29.12.2022 passed u/s 143(3) of the Act are hereby quashed. The additional grounds filed by the assessee are allowed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1132
Revision u/s 263 - Validity of order passed by the Ld. AO u/s 147 r.w.s 144B - course of action was required to be taken u/s 153C OR 148 - appellant was reopened u/s 147 after getting approval u/s 151 and notice u/s 148 was issued requiring the assessee to file income tax return - HELD THAT:- We find that the whole case has been framed based on material found during the search. Meaning thereby, the course of action was required to be taken u/s 153C and not u/s 148. This view has been accepted Sri Dinakara Suvarna [ 2023 (6) TMI 1175 - SC ORDER] - In our view, the AO has erred in invoking the reassessment proceedings u/s 147 and as such, the subsequent cause of action based on invalid order is held to be without jurisdiction. Our view gets support from the judgment delivered in the case of Badal Prakash Jindal [ 2023 (3) TMI 268 - ORISSA HIGH COURT] The revenue in the present case has not been able to prove as to how the order passed by the Assessing officer was erroneous and prejudicial to the interests of the revenue as the PCIT has not been able to prove non-application of mind by the AO particularly considering the fact that the order of Kapil Romanna was passed on 29.09.2021 and that the order of the appellant u/s 147 was passed on 24.03.2022 after considering the order of Kapil Romanna. It has been stated by the AO of Kapil Romanna in the said order passed u/s 153A that he has failed to identify the parties from whom the unsecured loan was raised. It is also mentioned that no PAN No, address and other details were furnished by Kapil Romanna. Consequently, Kapil Romanna has never identified the parties from whom the loan was raised, and the addition has been made in his hands u/s 68. Mere allegation that the AO has passed the order without application of mind would not be legally justified to set aside the assessment order by way of invoking section 263 of the Act. Considering the factual matrix and the judicial precedents, we do not concur with the PCIT that the AO did not verify the transactions appearing in the ledger account seized during search on Homeland group and that the order was passed without application of mind. Accordingly, we hold that the PCIT finding, and observation are infirm and perverse to the facts on record. Therefore, we hold that this is not a fit case for invoking the provisions of section 263 of the Act. We hold that the order passed under section 263 is bad in law and it is quashed. Decided in favour of assessee.
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2024 (7) TMI 1131
Reopening of assessment - Bogus purchases - prima facie reason at the initial stage of reopening - HELD THAT:- In the present case, the AO has received credible information from the Investigation Wing and ED about money laundering and foreign outward remittances by twelve entities of Hassanfatta group from their bank accounts to Dubai and Hong Kong based companies on strength of fake documents. Assessee had purchased from four of these companies. The assessee had also purchased from other three concerns of Hassanfatta group. Such details are given in the assessment order and have also been briefly discussed in the facts of the case of this order. Even, CIT(A) has found that assessee had transaction with the Hasanfatta group. Therefore, the Assessing Officer had credible information which had live link with the reason to believe . The decisions relied upon by the Ld. AR are distinguishable on facts and in any case are of non-jurisdictional Tribunals and Hon ble Courts. On the other hand, we have direct decisions i.e., Keshav Diamonds Pvt. Ltd. [ 2021 (4) TMI 224 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] Pushpak Bullion [ 2017 (8) TMI 961 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] , Peass Industrial Engineers Pvt. Ltd. [ 2016 (8) TMI 277 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] and Sajani Jewels [ 2016 (6) TMI 741 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] supporting case of Revenue. Revenue is further supported by the decisions of the Hon ble Supreme Court Raymand Woolan Mills Ltd., [ 1997 (12) TMI 12 - SUPREME COURT] which is the law of land in view of Article 141 of the Constitution. In view of the above facts, and respectfully following the decisions cited (supra), the ground of the appeal raised by appellant is dismissed. Estimation of income - Bogus purchases - It is clear that the issue is squarely covered by the decision Pankaj K. Chaudhary [ 2021 (10) TMI 653 - ITAT SURAT] and there is no change in facts and law and since Revenue is unable to produce any material to controvert the aforesaid findings, thus sustain addition @ 6% of the bogus purchase of the appellant. Addition u/s 69 - unexplained loans given - Section 69 is related to unexplained investment, which are not recorded in the books of account maintained by the appellant. In the present case, these are duly recorded in the books of assessee and such finding by the CIT(A) has not been disproved by Revenue by adducing necessary evidence. Hence, the advances cannot come under the purview of the Section 69 of the Act. We may also refer to the decision of Ayachi Chandrashekar Narsangji [ 2013 (12) TMI 372 - GUJARAT HIGH COURT] where the Hon ble court held that where the department has accepted repayment of loan in subsequent year, no addition was to be made in current year on account of cash credit. Addition of transactions in penny stock - assessee has submitted that the AO has made the addition without any basis or proper inquiry - HELD THAT:- The entire investment of Birla Pacific Madspa Ltd. and M/s Orissa Mineral Development Co.Ltd. has been added though payment was made from disclosed bank account. The assessee has made loss of Rs. 1,86,641/- in the transaction of Birla Pacific Madspa Ltd. but AO has added the total investment of Rs. 53,06,816/-. Similarly, there was loss of Rs. 35,11,427/- in the trading of M/s Orissa Mineral Development Co.Ltd. which is a PSU. We find that the Ld.CIT(A) has duly discussed the facts in proper perspective and given the decision which is proper and logical. We find no reason to interfere in the findings of Ld.CIT(A). Accordingly, both grounds of Revenue are dismissed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1130
Denial of deduction u/s. 80P(2)(d) - interest received - DR contended that interest income earned by a co-operative society on deposits made out of surplus funds with co-operative banks qualifies for deduction both u/s 80P(2)(a)(i) and section 80P(2)(d) - HELD THAT:- In the present case, the interest received by the Appellant from Punjab State Cooperative Agricultural Development Bank, Chandigarh, clearly falls within the ambit of Section 80P(2)(d). It is income derived by the Appellant from its investments with another cooperative society, namely, Punjab State Cooperative Agricultural Development Bank (SADB). In our view, the statutory provision u/s 80P(2)(d) is unambiguous and explicit in its scope. It allows for a deduction in respect of interest income derived from investments with other cooperative societies. The interest received by the Appellant squarely meets this criterion and is therefore eligible for deduction u/s 80P(2)(d).Accordingly, the CIT(A) ought to have recognized the eligibility of the interest received by the Appellant for deduction u/s 80P(2)(d). In the present case, the interest being received by the Appellant from Punjab State Cooperative Agricultural Development Bank, Chandigarh, which clearly falls within the ambit of Section 80P(2)(d). Thus, it is the income derived by the Appellant from its investments with another cooperative society, namely, Punjab State Cooperative Agricultural Development Bank (SADB). We accept that the grievance of the appellant is justified and accordingly following the coordinate bench and judicial precedent, we hold that appellant is eligible for deduction u/s 80P(2)(d) of the Act and therefore, the addition is deleted. Disallowance of payment to Gratuity Fund - CIT(A) has observed that Gratuity Fund allowable as per Rule at 8.33% and Excess contribution to Gratuity Fund has been disallowed - AR submitted that Id. CIT (Appeals) has ignored the fact that such payment of gratuity was according to the terms, conditions and directions of the Head office - HELD THAT:- As we hold that since the AO disallowed the excess contribution to gratuity fund contributed by the appellant during the Assessment Year 2020-21 amounting to Rs. 36,981/- and rightly added back to the total income of the appellant under the head income from other sources. We find no perversity in the order of the ld. CIT(A) on the issue of confirmation of amount of Rs. 36,981/- on account of excess payment of gratuity and thus, this ground of appeal is rejected.
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2024 (7) TMI 1129
Revision u/s 263 - allowability of carry forward losses and depreciation - HELD THAT:- Appellant s contention that for the AY 2019-20 assessee company has a profit which is required to be set off against the business loss of AY 2018-19 and also the remaining quantum of profits from business deserves to be set off against brought forward unabsorbed depreciation from AY 2013-14 to AY 2018-19. It has been averred that once this setting off is carried out, then there remains no taxable income for AY 2019-20. As mentioned earlier, the CIT(A) has laid considerable emphasis on the part of Section 263(1), explanation thereof whereby under Clause (a), it is mentioned that the reopening can be attracted in case an order has been passed without making inquiries or verification which should have been done. On a careful consideration of this issue, it is evident that once the issue of carry forward of depreciation is no longer a debatable matter with the law laid down by the Hon ble Apex Court [ 1995 (9) TMI 2 - SUPREME COURT] , then there would be a considerable quantum of carried forward unabsorbed depreciation to merit a comfortable setting off of the income under consideration. It is felt that the Pr. CIT giving directions for revision u/s 263 of the Act merely for the sake of carrying out inquiries is an exercise in futility which deserves to be avoided. Considering this the order u/s 263 of the Act is hereby quashed. Appeal filed by the assessee is allowed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1128
Non grant of credit of TDS for want of Form 16A - tax was not deposited by the deductor to the account of the Central Government - HELD THAT:- No discrepancy or anomaly has been pointed out in the documents and submission placed on record by the assessee. No independent verification or inquiry has been made from the deductor with respect to the tax deducted at source of the assessee despite the fact that assessee had furnished the complete details Name, TAN etc. to the AO as well as CIT(A). It is also not the case of the AO or CIT(A) that the corresponding income has not been declared by the assessee. Now only because the tax was not deposited by the deductor to the account of the Central Government, the assessee has been denied the credit of tax deducted and a corresponding demand has been raised. Denial of such benefit of credit is complete contravention to provisions of Section 205 of the Act. It is clear from the provisions of Section 205 of the Act that in cases where tax has been deducted from the income of the assessee, no further tax shall be called upon from the assessee. The natural corollary to same being that assessee has a right to get the credit of that TDS amount qua the demand against him. Reliance is placed on the following judicial pronouncements wherein it has been held that once tax has been deducted, it s the responsibility of the deductor to deposit the same with the government, deductee cannot be penalized and demand can not be raised on short fall of TDS on deductee. See SANJAY SUDAN [ 2023 (2) TMI 1079 - DELHI HIGH COURT] INCREDIBLE UNIQUE BUILDCON PRIVATE LIMITED [ 2023 (10) TMI 625 - DELHI HIGH COURT] INCREDIBLE UNIQUE BUILDCON PRIVATE LIMITED [ 2023 (6) TMI 1135 - DELHI HIGH COURT] , JASJIT SINGH [ 2023 (12) TMI 34 - DELHI HIGH COURT] . Thus we are of considered view that CIT(A) has fallen in error to misinterpret the judgement relied upon by the assessee by holding that there is merely bar on recovery of demand but does not lay down law for giving credit of TDS in respect of the amount which is not reflected in the 26AS form. The bar on recovery of such disputed TDS is specific and the credit of same to be given to assessee is natural consequence. Further, we are of firm view that inability of an assessee to procure form 16A, due to intentional mischief of the deductor cannot be basis to refuse grant of credit of TDS or the refund arising consequent to giving credit, if assessee is otherwise eligible for same. This issue in all the appeals is decided in favour of assessee. Error in in computing the demand - As we find that issue requires examination of certain facts and consequential effects, which are of arithmetical nature. Accordingly, the second issue of AY 2017-18 is allowed for statistical purposes. The AO shall make necessary verification and pass an order accordingly.
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2024 (7) TMI 1127
Cash credit u/s 68 r.w.s. 115BBE - cash deposit during demonetization period - Assessee failure to maintain books of accounts u/s 44AD - HELD THAT:- In case of Surinder Pal Anand [ 2010 (6) TMI 404 - PUNJAB AND HARYANA HIGH COURT] as held that where under special provision of Section 44AD, exemption from maintaining of books of account has been provided and presumptive tax @ 8 per cent of the gross receipts itself is the basis for determining the taxable income, the assessee was not under obligation to explain individual entry of cash deposit in the bank unless such entry had no nexus with the gross receipts. Assessee holds the drug licence for wholesale and retail sale of veterinary medicines and has filed his return of income declaring gross receipts u/s 44AD of the Act. The return of income so filed by the assessee has been accepted by the AO meaning thereby that both the applicability of section 44AD and non-maintenance of books of accounts as well as particulars in the return of income so filed has been accepted which includes the gross receipts from sale of medicines. At the same time, only thing which has to be satisfied by the assessee is that cash so deposited in the bank account has the necessary nexus with the sales and gross receipts so disclosed by the assessee. We find that the assessee has shown cash sales in the month of October 2016 and cash sales of Rs 19,46,845/- in the month of November 2016 and cash of Rs 33,00,000/- has been deposited in the month of November 2016 and the fact that the source of cash so deposited is out of the sales made has been duly reported by the assessee to the Revenue authorities as mandated in terms of filings relating to acceptance of SBN Notes during the demonization period and thereafter, during the course of assessment proceedings, the assessee has also filed sales vouchers of cash sales along with copy of cash book for necessary verification of the AO. The fact that the cash receipts for the month of October have been deposited in the very next month in November cannot be a reason to dispute rather it supports the case of the assessee by satisfying the proximity test and the nexus which the assessee has established between the sales and the deposits, this coupled with the fact that there was epidemic regarding FMD disease and winter season resulting in increase sales in these two months has not been totally discarded by the AO and the ld CIT(A) and the fact that the sales have been duly reported and forms part of VAT filing and VAT assessment shows that sales cannot be disputed. The decision in case of J.M.J Essential Oil Company [ 2022 (7) TMI 1017 - HIMACHAL PRADESH HIGH COURT] doesn t support the case of the Revenue as in that case, there were cash sales only in a particular month and there was sufficient material on record to show cash sales were fabricated unlike the present case, where the assessee is regularly undertaking cash sales and there are no material on record to establish the sales so reported are fabricated except suspicion due to high sales vis- -vis other months and which cannot be a ground to dispute the sales, rather, in the instant case, the assessee has produced the necessary sale vouchers and cash book. We therefore find that the assessee has made the necessary and timely disclosure regarding the source of cash deposited in the SBN notes during the demonetization period and the nexus has been duly established between the sales and cash deposits and in view of the same, we find that there is no justifiable basis to make addition of Rs 23 lacs which already stand disclosed and reported as part of gross receipts u/s 44AD and accepted by the AO resulting in double addition which clearly can t be sustained in the eyes of law. In the result, the addition so made is hereby directed to be deleted. Appeal of the assessee is allowed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1126
TP adjustment - notional interest on receivables on account of issuance of Non-Convertible Cumulative Redeemable Preference Shares - Recharacterizing transaction of Non-Convertible Cumulative Redeemable Preference Shares (NCCRPS) as quasi equity - HELD THAT:- Since it is already considered as the capital finance transaction as per the definition of international transaction u/s 92B, we are inclined to accept partial finding of the Transfer Pricing Officer that it is a quasi-capital and its cost has to be benchmarked in the international market. In the given case, the Transfer Pricing Officer has already observed that the cost of capital of the assessee is at 9.945% based on the Balance Sheet submitted by the assessee. Since it is an international transaction we cannot benchmark the same at the Indian market rate and as held in the various judicial pronouncements, the international transactions have to be benchmarked at the cost of capital based on the respective Libor rate. In this case, the preference shares are issued for a period of 7 years, however, it is redeemed within 3 years. Therefore, the bench-marking has to be undertaken by adopting the 3 years LIBOR rate. It is normal on the part of the various banks to charge the interest on the basis of Libor rate plus certain basis points considering the risk factors involved in financing the same. However, in the given case assessee has taken financing from its own AE. Therefore, the benchmark has to be done based on the Libor rate i.e., LIBOR + basis points + adjustment of risk factor, considering the fact that the AE has invested in India without any collateral securities. In this case, the cost involved in the capital financing is 8.5% of dividend. Therefore, it has to be benchmarked on the basis of Libor rate available on the date of issue of preference shares. Accordingly, we direct the Assessing Officer to benchmark the same by adopting the Libor rate (3 years quote) basis as indicated above. Since assessee has incurred the cost of 8.5% in comparison to the LIBOR rate, accordingly, we direct the Assessing Officer / Transfer Pricing Officer to benchmark the same and determine the ALP i.e., the difference of dividend of 8.5% and the LIBOR rate as per above discussion. Accordingly, we are inclined to allow the Ground No.1 raised by the assessee for statistical purpose. Accounting of lease - Deduction under the head any other amount liable as deduction in schedule BP of the returned income, which included principle lease payment of finance - considering the submissions that assessee is not the owner and assessee has to return the assets after the completion of the lease period, tax authorities held that the assessee has claimed portion of principal amount of the installment paid against the assets taken on Finance Lease. Therefore, the principal amount component is a capital in nature and not allowable as revenue expenses u/s 37(1) - HELD THAT:- As discussed the various aspects of recognizing the Leases and the case law relied by the assessee are relating to operating lease which is distinct from finance lease, where the main distinction is that in operating lease, the ownership remains with the lessor whereas in the finance lease, the ownership passes on to lessee. Assessee has to explain the various values declared in the depreciation schedule as well as the value adopted in the Computation sheet before AO, even we are not in a position to understand since it was not explained at the time of hearing. In our view, the method adopted by the assessee in following the Accounting standard and calculating the depreciation seems to be right however, the method to claim differently for computation of Income tax i.e., claim the principal repayment instead of relevant depreciation may not be right method. Therefore, it needs proper explanation and verification of various figures declared by the assessee in Depreciation schedule and computation sheet. The right method is to claim only the depreciation as per the depreciation schedule prepared under Income Tax Act because the assessee is the deemed owner of the assets and it has rightly recognized in its books of account. The assessee cannot bifurcate the claim under the I.T. Act separately for interest depreciation. Therefore, we direct A.O to allow only the depreciation on the assets under I.T. Act. Accordingly, we deem it fit and proper to remit this issue back to the file of the Assessing Officer to recheck the claim of assessee as per IND-AS 17 [AS-19] and at the same time we also direct the assessee to explain the accounting of leases properly before the AO and we direct AO to verify the same, after verifying the same allow the depreciation as per the above direction after providing adequate opportunity of being heard to the assessee. Accordingly, this ground of appeal is allowed for statistical purpose. Employees Share Option Scheme [ESOP] - AO rejected the submissions of the assessee and observed that ESOP expenses debited by the assessee in its profit and loss account is not crystalized in the previous year as the same is contingent, notional and capital in nature, hence he rejected the claim of the assessee - HELD THAT:- Hon ble Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT v. Biocon Ltd [ 2020 (11) TMI 779 - KARNATAKA HIGH COURT] has decided the issue in favour of assessee and respectfully following the above decision the Coordinate Bench of this Tribunal in assessee s own case for the A.Y. 2015-16 [ 2023 (5) TMI 1354 - ITAT MUMBAI] has decided the issue in favour of assessee as held that incurring of the expenditure by the assessee entitles him for deduction under Section 37(1) of the Act subject to fulfillment of the condition.The deduction of discount on ESOP over the vesting period is in accordance with the accounting in the books of accounts, which has been prepared in accordance with Securities And Exchange Board of India (Employee Stock Option Scheme and Employee Stock Purchase Scheme) Guidelines, 1999. Additional claim on ESOP raised by the assessee the similar issue was considered by the Coordinate Bench in A.Y. 2015-16 [ 2023 (5) TMI 1354 - ITAT MUMBAI] and remitted the issue back to the file of the Assessing Officer / Ld. DRP to verify claim of the assessee. Disallowance u/s 14A - assessee has invested substantial amount in investments yielding exempt income in equities and mutual funds - HELD THAT:- As we observe that Assessing Officer has invoked the provisions of section 14A r.w. Rule 8D of I.T. Rules and determined the disallowance by applying 1% of the annual average of the monthly average of opening and closing balance of value of investments mechanically. We observe that AO has taken total value of average investments which may include those investments which has not generated any exempt income in the above said total investments made by the assessee, however, it is settled position of law that the AO has to consider only those investments which has actually yielded exempt income - remit this issue back to the file of the AO to consider those investments which has actually yielded the exempt income. Accordingly, Ground allowed for statistical purpose. Adjustment made in the book profit u/s 115JB for disallowance u/s 14A - Section 14A disallowance cannot be part of clause (f) of Explanation (ii) of section 115JB of the Act. We observe that in the case of ACIT v. Vireet Investments Private Limited [ 2017 (6) TMI 1124 - ITAT DELHI] held that the computation under clause (f) of Explanation 1 to section 115JB(2) is to be made without resorting to the computation as contemplated u/s. 14A r.w. Rule 8D of the I.T Rules, 1962. Thus we direct assessing officer to delete the above adjustment made in the book profit u/s 115JB. Adjustment of dividend distribution tax - As at the time of hearing, assessee submitted that this issue is decided by the Tribunal against the assessee. Therefore, we dismiss the ground raised by the assessee. Short grant of TDS credit - Since this issue is factual matter which needs verification on the part of the Assessing Officer, we deem it fit and proper to remit this issue back to the file of the Assessing Officer to verify the claim of the assessee and allow the same as per law. Accordingly, this ground of appeal is allowed for statistical purpose. Addition u/s 68 - cash deposit in Specified Bank Note (SBN) during demonetization period - HELD THAT:- Since assessee is in the business of travel agent and tourism where it is dealing in foreign exchange conversion and relevant remittances being authorized dealer across India. As discussed earlier it has 39 branches across India and during demonetization period it has deposited huge cash generated by the 39 branches of the specific bank notes. Since the assessee is in this line of business and dealing in cash transactions it may have carried cash balances which was subsequently deposited through 39 branches in the respective banks. Since it is an authorised dealer assessee is required to maintain books of accounts and details of cash deposits and remittances across the branches and it has to report back to the RBI in regular intervals. Therefore, assessee must be having details of closing cash balances across the branches. These details may be submitted before AO for verification to prove that assessee had sufficient cash balances in the above said specific bank notes and which assessee has deposited across the branches. Ground raised by the assessee allowed for statistical purpose. Determine the value of assets for the purpose of Finance Lease in the books of accounts of the assessee - cars on Finance Lease from Lessors - HELD THAT:- Since the assessee has already recognize the values of vehicle in their books, there is no need to revalue or valuation report, the assessee has already adopted the value of the assets, it needs to continue to adopt the same and at the time of foreclosure, the assessee has to settle the value based on the value of assets along with the penalty if there is any as per the lease agreement. Therefore, we are directing the Assessing Officer to adopt the value as per the Balance sheet and reject the valuation submitted by the assessee. Still the Assessing Officer has to verify the recording of lease transaction and relevant adoption of depreciation claim as per the law and adopt the same here for the value for recognizing the value for foreclosure, as such there should not be any difference to the value in the depreciation schedule. Therefore, the controversy of valuation of vehicle will be addressed and the value of assets as on the date of foreclosure in the Balance Sheet of the assessee will be the actual value as per depreciation schedule on the date of foreclosure. Therefore, this ground of appeal also remitted back. Depreciation claim on property Let out - AO observed that premises were let out by the assessee, then how is that depreciation is allowable on the same under the Profits and Gains from Business or Profession - period of addition was considered as less than 180 days the depreciation is worked out as 50% of allowable depreciation - tenant has vacated the portion of office premises and the assessee has occupied the building and claimed the depreciation for the period of reoccupation by the assessee - HELD THAT:- The tenancy rights were surrendered at the fag end of the previous year. However, the ownership of the building is still with the assessee and it is not relevant whether assessee occupies the building for the purpose of business or not. It is evident that assessee is owner of the property and it has renovated for the purpose of utilizing the same for its own business, as such assessee is in possession of the building which is under renovation that itself shows that it is under the control of the assessee and it will be used for the purpose of business. Once it has become ready to be occupied by the assessee for running its own business and with that it fulfills the conditions of sec 32, the depreciation is automatically applicable. Therefore, the assessee has claimed only the depreciation for the period after surrender of the tenancy rights by the tenant. Therefore, it is not relevant whether actually utilizes for the remaining period, as long as it is in its position and the depreciation can be claimed for utilization as well as based on the concept of passage of time during which the property was in its control and possession. Therefore, the above said depreciation cannot be denied to the assessee. Accordingly, this ground of appeal is allowed. Claim of indexation while computing book profit - assessee has reduced the indexation cost acquisition of transfer of shares while calculating the book profit u/s 115JB - HELD THAT:- While claiming the benefit, the assessee acknowledged that this transfer of shares is exempt from tax u/s 10(38) of the Act and relied on the decision of Hon ble Karnataka High Court in the case of Best Trading and Agencies Ltd (supra) wherein it was held that indexation benefit should be allowed. It was held that the indexation benefit was allowed for the reason that the assessee company was established as SPV for transfer of Land and Building. Further it was held that indexed cost of acquisition is a claim allowed by sec.48 to arrive at the income taxable as per sec.45 at the rates provided u/s 112. Further, it was held that the assessee has to be given the benefit of indexed cost of acquisition as considering the profits on sale of land without giving the benefit of indexed cost of acquisition results in taking the income other than actual/real income. Since the Hon ble court allowed the indexation while determining the book profit u/s 115JB. As decided in Karnataka State Industrial [ 2017 (1) TMI 675 - ITAT BANGALORE] assessee-company is entitled to the benefit of indexation while calculating long-term capital gains which are to be considered for the purpose of computing tax liability u/s 115JB.
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2024 (7) TMI 1125
Rejection of registration u/s 12A and approval u/s 80G(5) - earlier registration was granted to the assessee was withdrawn on the ground of involvement of money laundering and Violation of the law on account of non-payment of loan to the bank, short fall of TDS as per the audit report, outstanding/belated payment of PF ESIC, non-payment of GST on rent receipt and the retirement benefit of employee s are not accounted as per AS-15 - meantime due to amendment in the provisions of section 12A of the Act the assessee again applied for registration under the new law and provisional registration u/s 12AB and approval u/s 80G(5) HELD THAT:- As regards the cancelation of the registration granted earlier u/s 12AA of the Act. we find that the said cancelation order has been set aside by this tribunal vide order [ 2023 (6) TMI 1404 - ITAT RAIPUR ] as considered rival submissions since the cancellation of registration u/s 12A is restored we are of the considered view that since, the provisional registration u/s 12AA(i)(ac)(vi) and 80G(v)(iv) of I.T. Act has already been granted by ld. PCIT on 10.03.2022, therefore, the activities of the assessee societies are considered as genuine. We are inclined to set aside the order of ld. CIT(E) withdrawing the approval to the assessee society u/s 10(23C)(vi) and direct ld. CIT(E) to restore approval u/s 10(23C)(vi) to the assessee society. Non-payment of interest on outstanding loans to Central Bank of India - Non-payment of loan to the bank is clearly a default on the part of the assessee of its contractual obligation however, that default of repayment of loan itself would not be considered as a non-compliance of any other law time being in force in terms of section 12AB(1)(b)(i). To understand the violation of non-compliance of any other law time being in force it has to be seen in the context of violation of provisions of law governing the activities of the institution or trust for achieving its objects or violation of the provisions of law which governs or regulates the institution or trust itself. The non-payment of the loan of the bank does amount to violation of any law which governs or regulates the activities of the assesse in achieving the objects. A non-performance of contractual obligation would not constitute non- compliance of such requirement of any other law for time being in force. Since the matter of recovery of outstanding loan is still pending for adjudication before DRT therefore, neither it is undisputed violation nor has this default of payment attained finality. Therefore, this ground of rejecting the application has no legs to stand. Non- deduction or payment of TDS - Though there was non-payment of TDS and short deduction of TDS by the assessee on certain payments of interest however, the said deficient payment was made good in the subsequent year and there is no outstanding in the subsequent years. Even otherwise the short deduction of TDS and belated payment of TDS does not amount to non-compliance with the requirement of any other law time being in force which is material for achieve the objects of the assessee. These noncompliance of deduction and payment of TDS are having their own remedies under the income Tax Act and subject matter of assessments. Hence, non-deduction or short deduction of TDS cannot be a ground for refusal of registration. Non deposit of PF and ESIC - Non-payment/delayed payment to the contribution to PF and ESI has consequential disallowance as per the provisions of income tax Act and are subject matter of assessment. Hence, the belated payments of PF ESIC cannot be held as non-compliance with the requirement of any other law time being in force as per the provisions of section 12AB(1)(b)(i). We may clarify that these default or delayed payments of PF ESIC as well as TDS are not in the nature of violation of provisions of law governing activity of the assessee or governing/regulating the assessee society itself are material for achieving the objects of assesse. Not making provisions for retirement benefit of the employees as per AS-15 - Though as a prudent employer it is required to make timely provision for retirement benefit of the employees so as to avoid the default in timely payment of retirement benefits. However, this is only an accounting requirement as per AS -15 issued by ICAI and there is no statutory requirement for making such provision by the assessee society. The only requirement is to pay the retiral benefit to the employees at the time of retirement. Therefore, non- making of the provisions of retirement benefit cannot be held as a non- compliance of requirement of any other law time being in force which is material for the purpose of achieving its objects. Not charging GST by the assessee on the rental income and thereby it was considered as non-compliance of requirement of other law time being in force - Government of India as vide this notification has exempted the entities registration u/s 12AA from GST hence, the assesse was not required to pay the GST and even was not required to register under the GST. Accordingly the said ground of CIT(E) is contrary to the notification no.12 of 2017 dated 13.06.2017 of Government of India. The registration granted u/s 12AA to the assesse society vide order dated 07.03.2003 and subsequent cancelled vide order dated 14.11.2018 has been restored by the tribunal and therefore, the said registration was still subsisting till the impugned order was passed by the CIT(E). Hence the assesse being registered u/s 12AA was exempt from the GST registered as per notification of Government of India and consequently no violation of any law time being in force. There is no dispute regarding the charitable objects of the assesse society and genuineness of the activity being already registered u/s 12A since 2003. Thus we set aside the impugned order of the CIT(A) and direct the CIT(E) to grant registration to assessee u/s 12AB as well as approval u/s 80G(5) of the Act. Assessee appeal allowed.
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Customs
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2024 (7) TMI 1124
Export of non-Basmati White Rice - grievance of the petitioner- Company is that it has already entered into contract for supply of aforesaid rice to various foreign entities prior to issuance of notification (Annexure P-1) and if terms of the contract are not fulfilled, then of-course same will be create various hardship to the petitioner alongwith goodwill of his business - it was held by High Court that The respondents are directed to permit the petitioner to export the Non-basmati White Rice to foreign entities in compliance of contract entered into between them, to which letter of credit has been issued by the petitioner for supply of quantity - HELD THAT:- Since, the impugned orders are interim orders, no interference required. SLP dismissed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1123
Classificaton of goods - Violation of principles of natural justice - challenge to assessment order - contentions raised by the petitioner were not taken into consideration - order is non-speaking with regard to certain heads of claim - exercise of discretionary jurisdiction - Whether the impugned order warrants interference in exercise of discretionary jurisdiction? - HELD THAT:- The judgments relied upon by learned Additional Government Pleader in Bhagath Raja v. Union of India Ors [ 1967 (3) TMI 105 - SUPREME COURT ] and S.N.Mukherjee v. Union of India [ 1990 (8) TMI 345 - SUPREME COURT ] indicate that a quasi-judicial authority is required to record reasons. The rationale behind insisting on reasons is also set out in the said judgments. The judgments also add that such reasons need not be as elaborate as those in judgments of courts of law. By taking note of these principles, whether the order impugned herein contains reasons and whether the contentions raised by the petitioner were dealt with therein should be examined. Classification of goods - to be classified under CTH 8301 of the Customs Tariff Act or not - HELD THAT:- The reasons were specified in support of the conclusion, but vital contentions regarding GRI and the Explanatory Notes were not considered. In order to balance revenue interest, the impugned order dated 04.04.2024 is set aside on condition that the petitioner remits a sum of Rs. 1.75 crore as agreed to within four weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this order. The sum of Rs. 1,75,00,000 exceeds 5% of the disputed tax demand under this head. The other heads of tax demand are not being reckoned in this regard because unreasoned conclusions were recorded - Subject to being satisfied that the said amount was received, the assessing officer is directed to provide a reasonable opportunity to the petitioner, including a personal hearing, and thereafter issue a fresh order within three months from the date of receipt of the petitioner s reply. Petition disposed off.
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2024 (7) TMI 1122
Levy of penalty for non-fulfilment of the export obligation - Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) authorizations - specific case of the petitioner/Company is that they were not served with any show cause notice and no opportunity of personal hearing was also given before passing the impugned order - violation of principles of natural justice - HELD THAT:- As repeatedly held by the Hon ble Supreme Court of India and this Court in various decisions, the appeal remedy is not a complete for entertaining Writ Petition under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, when there is violation of principles of natural justice. Therefore, the Writ Petition is very much maintainable, since the petitioner was not served with any show cause notice and was not given an opportunity of personal hearing before passing the impugned order. On this sole ground, the impugned order cannot be sustained and it is liable to be quashed. The impugned order dated 24.08.2021 is hereby quashed - Petition allowed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1121
Challenge to Exhibit P-4 notice issued under Section 150 of the Customs Act, 1962 - seizure of Gold and Liquor - disposal of the seized gold under Section 110 (1A) of the Act - no prosecution for any offence committed - HELD THAT:- The gold is not a perishable item. The petitioner has not been prosecuted for any offence committed by him. No charge sheet has been filed against him and he was not taken into custody. Merely on the ground of statement recorded under Section 110 of the Act, the gold items seized from the petitioner are being disposed of under Section 150 of the Act. The question whether without following the procedure for adjudication by issuing a show cause notice can be resorted to for disposal of the gold items came for consideration before the Delhi High Court in the case of ZHINET BANU NAZIR DADANY VERSUS UNION OF INDIA ANR. [ 2019 (5) TMI 1252 - DELHI HIGH COURT ]. Thus, merely on the ground of statement recorded under Section 110 of the Act, the authorities should not proceed to dispose of the seized items if the same are not perishable and before disposal, adjudication proceedings must preceed - the impugned notice under Section 150 of the Act in Exhibit P-4 is set aside. The respondents are directed to issue show cause notice to the petitioner and thereafter adjudicate the matter and proceed further. Petition disposed off.
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2024 (7) TMI 1120
SCN for confiscation of goods imported - invocation of penalty u/s 114A of CA - import duty of fresh apples paid by way of scrips issued under the Focused Market Scheme (FMS), Focused Product Scheme (FPS) and Vishesh Krishi Gram Udyog Yojna (VKGUY) by DGFT - suppression of facts - time limitation - HELD THAT:- There is nothing on record to suggest any culpability on the part of the appellant for having debited the duty through scrips. It is common knowledge that such duty payment debits are required to be endorsed by the officers concerned. There are no justification for issuance of the show cause notice to the appellant under section 28(4) of the Customs Act invoking suppression and the larger period of limitation. It is on record that the appellant had voluntarily paid duty in cash along with interest, even prior to issuance of the show cause notice dated 10.04.2015. When both the Revenue officials as well as their own assessing system - the EDI, had accepted the initial debit of duty through scrips, which subsequently was made good in cash along with interest, the law itself provided for no show cause notice to be issued in terms of the provisions of said section 28 itself. There are no justification in the department s action, seeking to impose penalty, on the appellant in the aforesaid matter. It is imperative that to invoke larger period of limitation, intention to evade payment of duty need to be shown and fraud, suppression or misstatement etc. need to be expressly proven. None of these elements are noticeable in the matter - The department therefore cannot affix the blame for their own omissions on the importer, particularly so when it is established from records that no sooner the anomalous situation was brought to the notice of the appellant importer by the DRI, all duty payments were promptly made in cash along with interest. For reasons foregoing, we find no merits in the orders of the lower authority imposing penalty on the appellant under Section 114A, initially for an amount of Rs.23.00 Lakh and then subsequently enhancing it by way of corrigendum dated 14.12.2016 to Rs.1,72,61,089.00. The order of the lower authority holding the imported goods liable to confiscation and imposition of penalty under section 114A is set aside - Appeal allowed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1119
Penalty u/s 112a(ii) of the Customs Act, 1962 - Smuggling - mis-declaration and undervaluation of goods - HELD THAT:- The extent of duty defrauded is anybody s guess as the importer had been regularly importing these goods for quite a bit of time. The forensic evidence retrieved to whatever extent is sufficient enough to establish the scale of undervaluation. This, was undertaken both in respect of past shipments as well as the current imports relevant to the present case, personally benefiting the importers along with others involved and defrauding the Government of its legitimate dues. The appellants have not been able to justify a case for waiver of penalty. However, considering the facts and circumstances of the case, that the appellant was playing upon the instructions of the importer though with self-serving intents; the fact that the appellants failed to discharge their obligation in law, the fact of filing the Bill of Entry on the basis of unsigned invoices and such other considerations as brought out in the investigations, the fact that digital mapping and cyber forensic examination and imaging of the appellant s hard disks and CPUs and laptops seized from their office revealed explosive documentary evidence exposing the entire racket, no case for completely setting aside the penal liabilities imposed is made out by the appellants. The ends of justice shall be met by imposing penalty of Rs.4.00 Lakh on M/s.Prethvisha Logistics Pvt.Ltd. and Rs.1.00 Lakh on Shri Palash Banerjee under Section 112(ii) of the Customs Act - appeal disposed off.
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FEMA
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2024 (7) TMI 1118
Claim of interest on refund of Amount deposited - Penalty was Imposed under FEMA - refund of confiscated amount - Interest accrued on deposited amount by the respondents in the Nationalized Bank - legitimate right of the petitioner to receive interest on the amount that were lying with the Department for almost for 21 years - HELD THAT:- As there is no justification in the stand of the respondents in denying the interest, as Section 42 of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973, makes it clear that in all other cases, such proceeds shall be paid to such person as may appear to other cases, such proceeds shall be paid to such person as may appear to the officer or the Court, who or which made the direction under subsection (1) to be entitled thereto in such currency and in such manner as he or it deems just together with interest at the rate of six per cent. per annum from the date on which such draft, cheque (including traveller s cheque) or other instrument came into his or its custody till the date of payment. By confiscating the amount, the respondents have made no favour to the petitioner. By returning the amount belatedly pursuant to the directions of this Court, the respondents have done no favour to the petitioner. The petitioner cannot be rubbed of the interest, which the petitioner would have earned, had the petitioner invested the amount in Fixed Deposit. All that the respondents have done is to comply with the order by refunding the amount that was illegally confiscated from the petitioner. There has to be a restitution and therefore, the interest is to be paid to the petitioner. Writ Petition is disposed of by directing the respondents to pay the interest to the petitioner on the confiscated amount from the date of confiscation up to the date of refund at the prevailing bank interest within a period of 3 months from the date of receipt of a copy of this order. No costs.
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PMLA
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2024 (7) TMI 1117
Interpretation of statute - Section 88 of the Criminal Procedure Code - necessity of arrest before filing a complaint - HELD THAT:- It is not in dispute that the question of law raised in this appeal is covered by the dictum of this Court in TARSEM LAL VERSUS DIRECTORATE OF ENFORCEMENT JALANDHAR ZONAL OFFICE [ 2024 (5) TMI 837 - SUPREME COURT] , wherein, it has been held that if the accused person is not arrested prior to filing of the complaint, he has to only file a bond under Section 88, Cr.P.C., and, therefore, there is no need for arrest. The impugned order is set aside, and the appeal stands allowed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1116
Seeking grant of bail - money laundering - proceeds of crime - fraudulent acquisition of land which was in possession of Ministry of Defence, Government of India - reasons to believe - twin conditions laid down u/s 45 PMLA, 2002 - HELD THAT:- The documents seized according to the Enforcement Directorate manifested in a trail designating the role of the petitioner in the illegal acquisition and possession of 8.86 acres of land situated at Shanti Nagar, Baragain, Bariatu Road (near Lalu Khatal). It is, therefore, the case of the Enforcement Directorate that the provisions of PMLA, 2002 would apply since the petitioner had derived or obtained property as a result of a scheduled offence and had indulged himself in an activity connected with the said property. The factual aspects of the case would negate the submission of the learned Senior Counsel for the petitioner that there has been no schedule offence and, therefore, no case of money laundering is made out. The involvement of the petitioner as per the prosecuting agency is primarily through the angle of conspiracy though according to the Enforcement Directorate Section 120B was struck off in the formal FIR at the behest of the Police in spite of conspiracy playing a predominant role in the predicate offence which led to institution of Sadar P.S. Case No. 272 of 2023. The prelude to the entire episode culminating in submission of prosecution complaint and supplementary prosecution complaint by the Enforcement Directorate is the recovery of huge quantity of incriminating documents showing forgery, manipulation and tampering of government records and mutilation of government revenue records. Reasons to believe - HELD THAT:- The statement u/s 50 PMLA, 2002 is admissible in evidence as such statement is deemed to be recorded in a judicial proceeding as envisaged in sub-Section 4 of Section 50 PMLA, 2002. This Court is aware of the fact that meticulously delving into such evidence is the domain of the learned trial court and, therefore, only a fleeting reference has been made of the statements recorded u/s 50 PMLA, 2002 of the relevant persons. However, the same does not put an embargo upon the Court to disregard such statements in its totality particularly in a situation when the plea of bail of an accused is being considered. However, the contours of such statements can be taken into consideration in order to ascertain as to whether reason to believe that the petitioner is not guilty is fulfilled as enshrined in Section 45 PMLA, 2002. In Vijay Madanlal Choudhary Others versus Union of India [ 2022 (7) TMI 1316 - SUPREME COURT ], the broad probabilities based on the materials collected during investigation is to be considered and while reiterating the observations made in Ranjitsing Brahmajeetsing Sharma [ 2005 (4) TMI 566 - SUPREME COURT ], it was concluded thus The court while dealing with the application for grant of bail need not delve deep into the merits of the case and only a view of the court based on available material on record is required. The court will not weigh the evidence to find the guilt of the accused which is, of course, the work of Trial Court. The court is only required to place its view based on probability on the basis of reasonable material collected during investigation and the said view will not be taken into consideration by the Trial court in recording its finding of the guilt or acquittal during trial which is based on the evidence adduced during the trial. The overall conspectus of the case based on broad probabilities does not specifically or indirectly assign the petitioner to be involved in the acquisition and possession as well as concealment of 8.86 acres of land at Shanti Nagar, Bargain, Ranchi connected to the proceeds of crime . None of the registers/revenue records bare imprint of the direct involvement of the petitioner in the acquisition and possession of the said land. As it has been noticed above, the statement of some of the persons u/s 50 PMLA, 2002 designated the petitioner in the acquisition and possession of the property in question in the year 2010 without any material worth consideration and for all this while none of the ousted persons had approached the competent authority by registering any complaint which has conveniently been discounted by the Enforcement Directorate that the approaches though made to the Police proved futile. The consequence of the findings recorded by this Court satisfies the condition as at Section 45 PMLA, 2002 to the effect that there is reason to believe that the petitioner is not guilty of the offence as alleged - Though the conduct of the petitioner has been sought to be highlighted by the Enforcement Directorate on account of the First Information Report instituted by the petitioner against the officials of the Enforcement Directorate but on an overall conspectus of the case there is no likelihood of the petitioner committing a similar nature of offence. The twin conditions as prescribed u/s 45 PMLA, 2002 having been fulfilled, this application is allowed. Accordingly, the petitioner is directed to be released on bail on furnishing bail bond of Rs. 50,000/- with two sureties of the like amount each, to the satisfaction of learned Additional Judicial Commissioner-I-cum-Special Judge, PMLA, Ranchi in connection with ECIR Case No. 06/2023, arising out of ECIR/RNZO/25/2023 dated 26.06.2023. Bail application allowed.
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Service Tax
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2024 (7) TMI 1115
Classification of service - Tour Operator Service or travel agent service? - gross amount received by the Appellant in facilitating booking of hotel accommodation against commission - period from April, 2006 to March, 2011 - Extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- A Bare reading of the above definitions of tour operator service would go to show that primary engagement or activity or business of a person is that of planning, scheduling, organising or arranging tours by any mode of transport covered by permit granted under the Motor Vehicle Act. 1988 or the rules made there under and in so doing i.e. while conducting tour arrangement, accommodation, if made, can be included within the definition of tour operator service but a stand alone provision for arrangement of accommodation in a hotel room can t alone put the service under the category of tour operator service - giving a proper meaning to the definition of tour operator service , which is admittedly not being carried out by the Appellant as a service provider, since conducting tour by tourist vehicle having permit is a condition precedent to include arrangement for accommodation and not such arrangement of accommodation would alone put the service in the category of tour operator service and therefore, SCN justifying activity of the Appellant falling under the category of tour operator service only because the word accommodation is used in the definition, is a mere allegation and substantiation of the same by the Commissioner is erroneous as not in conformity to the statutory provisions. Leviability of Service Tax on the alleged service of providing hotel accommodation by the Appellant - HELD THAT:- It is noticed that learned Commissioner had avoided to give his finding on this specific issue by taking the classification to tour operator in which, hotel room accommodation was stated to be a composite service activity despite the fact that in the reply to the SCN, specific averment regarding non-taxability of hotel room accommodation before dated 01.05.2011 was made in para 3 of the said reply. We are in incomplete agreement to the fact that hotel room accommodation has been brought to Service Tax net w.e.f. 01.05.2011 and the same is an independent levy that stands without any link to tour operator service , unless it is a component of the same main service namely tour operator service - it is required to be mentioned here that prohibition on double taxation has emerged from principle of equity law for which even no constitutional recognition is required though in the Indian scenario for various taxation statute like Income Tax Act under Section 90 91 and in Indirect Tax, Double taxation avoid Agreement (DTAA) among the nation including India is available to contend such punity actions. Invocation of extended period of limitation - HELD THAT:- It is a settled principle of law developed through several decisions of the Hon ble Apex Court, one of which was delivered recently in the case of M/S CONTINENTAL FOUNDATION JOINT VENTURE SHOLDING, NATHPA HP VERSUS COMMISSIONER OF CENTRAL EXCISE, CHANDIGARH-I [ 2007 (8) TMI 11 - SUPREME COURT] that when the facts are known to the parties, omission by one party to do what he might have done would not render it to suppression. In the instant case service tax itself is held to be not leviable. It is found that extended period is also not invocable in this proceeding since taxability of the service was not in existence in the statute book under which classification was made while confirming the demand under tour operator service . The order passed by the Commissioner of Service Tax VI, Mumbai is hereby set aside - Appeal allowed.
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CST, VAT & Sales Tax
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2024 (7) TMI 1114
Exemption in relation to a turn-over - time limitation - contention of the petitioner is that the concerned F Forms relating to the disputed turn-over had been misplaced and could not be placed before the Assessing Officer in time - whether this Court can direct the 1st respondent-Assessing Authority to furnish a certified copy of the assessment order to enable the petitioner to file an appeal at this stage or whether the said filing of the appeal is now barred by limitation? - HELD THAT:- The period for passing the assessment order for the year 2015-2016 ended on 31.03.2020. The petitioner, which is a large Multi-National Company, cannot plead ignorance of the law or that the petitioner is awaiting an order despite the fact that the period for completing assessment had lapsed. Further, the contention, that the petitioner was under the impression that no demand was raised against the petitioner, cannot be accepted as such a conclusion could have been drawn only if an assessment order had been passed and served on the petitioner. The fact that the first step taken by the petitioner for the purpose of filing was only in June, 2022 when an application was made for a certified copy of the assessment order also militates against the version set up by the petitioner. The arguments that the service of the order by e-mail would not be proper service under Rule 64 of the Rules does not stand in view of the amendment to the said Rule. Further, the contention that service on the e-mail ID of the petitioner would not amount to proper service as the e-mail ID was inactive also cannot be accepted as it would be the duty of the petitioner to inform the Assessing Officer of any change in the e-mail ID. There are no reason to intervene or interfere in this case - the present Writ Petition is accordingly dismissed.
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Indian Laws
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2024 (7) TMI 1113
Rejection of bail - illegal trade of supplying counterfeit Indian currency notes in Nepal - High Court took the view that no cognizance could have been taken by the trial court against the appellant in the absence of any valid sanction of prosecution for the offence under Section 16 of the UAP Act - HELD THAT:- It is trite law that an accused is entitled to a speedy trial. This Court in a catena of judgments has held that an accused or an undertrial has a fundamental right to speedy trial which is traceable to Article 21 of the Constitution of India. If the alleged offence is a serious one, it is all the more necessary for the prosecution to ensure that the trial is concluded expeditiously. When a trial gets prolonged, it is not open to the prosecution to oppose bail of the accused-undertrial on the ground that the charges are very serious. Bail cannot be denied only on the ground that the charges are very serious though there is no end in sight for the trial to conclude. In SHAHEEN WELFARE ASSOCIATION VERSUS UNION OF INDIA (UOI) AND ORS. [ 1996 (2) TMI 597 - SUPREME COURT] , this Court was considering a public interest litigation wherein certain reliefs were sought for undertrial prisoners charged with offences under the Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act, 1987 (TADA Act) languishing in jail for considerable periods of time. This Court observed that while liberty of a citizen must be zealously safeguarded by the courts but, at the same time, in the context of stringent laws like the TADA Act, the interest of the victims and the collective interest of the community should also not be lost sight of. While balancing the competing interest, this Court observed that the ultimate justification for deprivation of liberty of an undertrial can only be on account of the accused-undertrial being found guilty of the offences for which he is charged and is being tried. If such a finding is not likely to be arrived at within a reasonable time, some relief(s) becomes necessary. Therefore, a pragmatic approach is required. This Court has, time and again, emphasized that right to life and personal liberty enshrined under Article 21 of the Constitution of India is overarching and sacrosanct. A constitutional court cannot be restrained from granting bail to an accused on account of restrictive statutory provisions in a penal statute if it finds that the right of the accused-undertrial under Article 21 of the Constitution of India has been infringed. In that event, such statutory restrictions would not come in the way. Even in the case of interpretation of a penal statute, howsoever stringent it may be, a constitutional court has to lean in favour of constitutionalism and the rule of law of which liberty is an intrinsic part. In the given facts of a particular case, a constitutional court may decline to grant bail. Appellant is directed to be released on bail subject to fulfilment of the conditions imposed - the impugned order is set aside - appeal disposed off.
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2024 (7) TMI 1112
Dishonour of Cheque - insufficient funds - compounding of the offence - settlement of dispute - Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act - HELD THAT:- Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 makes all offences under NI Act compoundable offences. This settlement agreement can be treated to be compounding of the offence. All the same, Section 320 (5) of CrPC provides that if compounding has to be done after conviction, then it can only be done with the leave of the Court where appeal against such conviction is pending. In cases where the accused relies upon some document for compounding the offence at the appellate stage, courts shall try to check the veracity of such document, which can be done in multiple ways. For the same, in the present matter, this Court vide order dated 18.03.2024 had asked the respondent-complainant to file an affidavit to bring on record whether or not any compromise has been reached between the parties. In Raj Reddy Kallem v. The State of Haryana Anr. [ 2024 (5) TMI 322 - SUPREME COURT ], this Court followed the same principles and quashed a conviction under the NI Act, by invoking its powers under Article 142, even though the complainant therein declined to give consent for compounding, observing that the accused has sufficiently compensated the complainant. The appellants are acquitted by setting aside the impugned order dated 01.04.2019 as well the Trial Court s order dated 16.10.2012 - appeal allowed.
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2024 (7) TMI 1111
Quashing of criminal proceedings - Section 156(3) of Cr.P.C. - complainant failed to complete the work within the stipulated time due to which a show cause notice was issued to the complainant on 06.11.2017 seeking response for his failure to complete the work - HELD THAT:- Undeniably, the agreement contains an arbitration clause and the arbitration proceedings have already commenced between the parties. When the dispute started, the first letter alleging complainant s failure to perform the work was issued by the appellant. In response to this communication, the complainant sent his reply (Annexure P-3) admitting that the construction activities have stopped due to his financial condition on account of imposition of GST and other hindrances - the complainant having himself admitted its inability to perform the work and requesting to settle the account as early as on 23.11.2017, it is certainly a civil dispute arising out of contract. The impugned order(s) of the High Court is set aside and the petitions under Section 482 Cr.P.C. are allowed - Appeal allowed.
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